SIP 29

1 Match the Following:

Political parties Reactionary parties Conservative parties Liberal parties

Believe in reforming existing institutions Voluntary associations sharing common political views Believe in old socio-economic and political institutions Believe in maintaining the status quo Aim at overthrowing existing institutions

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	C	D	B
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	B	C	D	A
(D)	C	B	A	D

Correct Answer: (C) — B-C-D-A

1. Political parties - B - Voluntary associations sharing common political views.
2. Reactionary parties - C - Believe in old socio-economic and political institutions.
3. Conservative parties - D - Believe in maintaining the status quo.
4. Liberal parties - A - Aim at reforming existing institutions.

2 Match the Following:

Radical parties Right parties Centre parties Left parties

CPI and CPM BJP Parties seeking a new order Congress Parties supporting status quo

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	C	B	D	A
(C)	E	A	B	D
(D)	A	C	B	E

Correct Answer: (B) — C-B-D-A

1. Radical parties - C - Parties seeking a new order.
2. Right parties - B - BJP.
3. Centre parties - D - Congress.
4. Left parties - A - CPI and CPM.

3 Match the Following:

Right parties Centre parties Left parties Reactionary parties

CPI and CPM BJP Congress Old institutions Reform existing institutions

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	C	B	D	A
(C)	B	C	A	D
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (C) — B-C-A-D

1. Right parties - B - BJP.
2. Centre parties - C - Congress.
3. Left parties - A - CPI and CPM.
4. Reactionary parties - D - Old institutions.

4 Match the Following:

One-party system Two-party system Multi-party system Coalition government

France, Switzerland and Italy Only one ruling party Formation associated with multiple parties USA and Britain No opposition permitted

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	E	A	D	C
(C)	A	B	C	D
(D)	B	D	A	C

Correct Answer: (D) — B-D-A-C

1. One-party system - B - Only one ruling party.
2. Two-party system - D - USA and Britain.
3. Multi-party system - A - France, Switzerland and Italy.
4. Coalition government - C - Formation associated with multiple parties.

5 Match the Following:

Former USSR China USA Britain

Two-party system One-party system Multi-party system Example associated with one-party system Example associated with multi-party system

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	B	B	A	A
(C)	C	A	B	D
(D)	D	C	A	B

Correct Answer: (B) — B-B-A-A

1. Former USSR - B - One-party system.
2. China - B - One-party system.
3. USA - A - Two-party system.
4. Britain - A - Two-party system.

6 Match the Following:

France Switzerland Italy China

One-party system Multi-party system Two-party system Multi-party system example One-party system example

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	E	A
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	B	B	B	A
(D)	D	C	A	B

Correct Answer: (C) — B-B-B-A

1. France - B - Multi-party system.
2. Switzerland - B - Multi-party system.
3. Italy - B - Multi-party system.
4. China - A - One-party system.

7 Match the Following:

Multi-party system One-party system Two-party system Coalition government

Two major parties exist Several parties may lead to coalition governments Only one ruling party exists Government formed through support of multiple parties Opposition is constitutionally mandatory

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	A	B	C	E
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	D	C	A	B

Correct Answer: (A) — B-C-A-D

1. Multi-party system - B - Several parties may lead to coalition governments.
2. One-party system - C - Only one ruling party exists.
3. Two-party system - A - Two major parties exist.
4. Coalition government - D - Government formed through support of multiple parties.

8 Match the Following:

Multi-party system in India One dominant party system Lack of clear ideology Personality cult

Feature of Indian party system Dominance of a particular political personality Presence of numerous political parties Absence of firmly defined ideological positions Existence of only one legal party

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	C	D	B
(B)	C	A	D	B
(C)	D	B	C	A
(D)	B	D	A	C

Correct Answer: (B) — C-A-D-B

1. Multi-party system in India - C - Presence of numerous political parties.
2. One dominant party system - A - Feature of Indian party system.
3. Lack of clear ideology - D - Absence of firmly defined ideological positions.
4. Personality cult - B - Dominance of a particular political personality.

9 Match the Following:

Traditional factors Regional parties Factions Defections

Party switching Feature influencing Indian party politics Emergence of parties with regional bases Internal group divisions Absence of elections

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	D	A	B	C
(C)	B	C	D	A
(D)	A	D	C	B

Correct Answer: (C) — B-C-D-A

1. Traditional factors - B - Feature influencing Indian party politics.
2. Regional parties - C - Emergence of parties with regional bases.
3. Factions - D - Internal group divisions.
4. Defections - A - Party switching.

10 Match the Following:

Factions and defections Lack of effective opposition Emergence of regional parties Personality cult

Regionalisation of party politics Internal divisions and party switching Weakness of opposition forces Influence centred around individuals Absence of political parties

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	C	D	B	A
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (A) — B-C-A-D

1. Factions and defections - B - Internal divisions and party switching.
2. Lack of effective opposition - C - Weakness of opposition forces.
3. Emergence of regional parties - A - Regionalisation of party politics.
4. Personality cult - D - Influence centred around individuals.

11 Match the Following:

Indian party system Traditional factors Regional parties Effective opposition

Not adequately present as a characteristic Influence party politics Important feature of Indian democracy Emergence is a feature of Indian party politics Characterised by a single political party only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	A	C	B	D
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (C) — A-B-D-C

1. Indian party system - A - Not adequately present as a characteristic.
2. Traditional factors - B - Influence party politics.
3. Regional parties - D - Emergence is a feature of Indian party politics.
4. Effective opposition - C - Important feature of Indian democracy.

12 Match the Following:

Election Commission Registration of political parties Recognition of political parties Poll performance

Basis for party recognition Purpose associated with elections Responsibility of the Election Commission Determines whether a party gains national or state recognition Function of the judiciary

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	C	B	C	D
(C)	D	A	B	C
(D)	A	D	C	B

Correct Answer: (B) — C-B-C-D

1. Election Commission - C - Responsibility of the Election Commission.
2. Registration of political parties - B - Purpose associated with elections.
3. Recognition of political parties - C - Responsibility of the Election Commission.
4. Poll performance - D - Determines whether a party gains national or state recognition.

13 Match the Following:

Political party registration National party recognition State party recognition General election performance

Recognition category Electoral basis for recognition Election Commission responsibility Recognition may depend on poll performance Non-electoral administrative function

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	D	B
(B)	B	D	A	C
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	C	A	A	B

Correct Answer: (D) — C-A-A-B

1. Political party registration - C - Election Commission responsibility.
2. National party recognition - A - Recognition category.
3. State party recognition - A - Recognition category.
4. General election performance - B - Electoral basis for recognition.

14 Match the Following:

Recognition of parties National party State party Number of recognised parties

Recognition at the state level Recognition at the national level Can change with electoral performance Granted by Election Commission Fixed permanently by Constitution

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	B	A	C
(B)	D	B	A	C
(C)	C	A	B	D
(D)	A	D	C	B

Correct Answer: (B) — D-B-A-C

1. Recognition of parties - D - Granted by Election Commission.
2. National party - B - Recognition at the national level.
3. State party - A - Recognition at the state level.
4. Number of recognised parties - C - Can change with electoral performance.

15 Match the Following:

AAP Ninth National Party National party recognition State party recognition

Recognition based on performance Aam Aadmi Party Party recognised at state level Position stated in the provided content Party without electoral recognition

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	B	D	A	C
(C)	A	C	D	B
(D)	C	B	A	D

Correct Answer: (B) — B-D-A-C

1. AAP - B - Aam Aadmi Party.
2. Ninth National Party - D - Position stated in the provided content.
3. National party recognition - A - Recognition based on performance.
4. State party recognition - C - Party recognised at state level.

16 Match the Following:

Reactionary Conservative Liberal Radical

Reform existing institutions New order by overthrowing existing institutions Old socio-economic and political institutions Status quo Coalition government

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	D	C	B	A

Correct Answer: (C) — C-D-A-B

1. Reactionary - C - Old socio-economic and political institutions.
2. Conservative - D - Status quo.
3. Liberal - A - Reform existing institutions.
4. Radical - B - New order by overthrowing existing institutions.

17 Match the Following:

Right Centre Left Radical

CPI and CPM Congress BJP New order Status quo

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	A	C	B	E
(C)	C	B	A	D
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (C) — C-B-A-D

1. Right - C - BJP.
2. Centre - B - Congress.
3. Left - A - CPI and CPM.
4. Radical - D - New order.

18 Match the Following:

Political party Constitutional means Political power National interest

Objective promoted by political parties Means through which political parties seek power Power political parties seek to gain Organised group sharing political views Military means of gaining power

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	B	C	A
(B)	A	C	D	B
(C)	B	D	A	C
(D)	C	A	B	D

Correct Answer: (A) — D-B-C-A

1. Political party - D - Organised group sharing political views.
2. Constitutional means - B - Means through which political parties seek power.
3. Political power - C - Power political parties seek to gain.
4. National interest - A - Objective promoted by political parties.

19 Match the Following:

One-party system Two-party system Multi-party system Indian party system

India USA and Britain Former USSR and China France, Switzerland and Italy Only regional parties

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	D	C	B	A
(C)	A	D	C	B
(D)	C	B	D	A

Correct Answer: (D) — C-B-D-A

1. One-party system - C - Former USSR and China.
2. Two-party system - B - USA and Britain.
3. Multi-party system - D - France, Switzerland and Italy.
4. Indian party system - A - India.

20 Match the Following:

Election Commission Political party registration National or state recognition Recognised party count

Based on poll performance May change over time Responsible authority Purpose connected with elections Determined by the Supreme Court alone

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	A	C	B	D
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (C) — C-D-A-B

1. Election Commission - C - Responsible authority.
2. Political party registration - D - Purpose connected with elections.
3. National or state recognition - A - Based on poll performance.
4. Recognised party count - B - May change over time.

21 Match the Following:

National party — first condition National party — second condition National party — third condition State party — first condition

Recognised as a state party in four states 6% votes in four or more states plus 4 Lok Sabha seats 6% votes in the state plus 2 Assembly seats 2% Lok Sabha seats with members elected from three states 8% votes in a state

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	D	B	C	A
(C)	C	A	D	E
(D)	A	C	E	B

Correct Answer: (A) — B-D-A-C

1. National party — first condition - B - 6% votes in four or more states plus 4 Lok Sabha seats.
2. National party — second condition - D - 2% Lok Sabha seats with members elected from three states.
3. National party — third condition - A - Recognised as a state party in four states.
4. State party — first condition - C - 6% votes in the state plus 2 Assembly seats.

22 Match the Following:

6% valid votes in four or more states 4 Lok Sabha seats 2% Lok Sabha seats Three states

Number of states from which the candidates must be elected under one national-party condition Additional seat requirement under one national-party condition Vote-share requirement under one national-party condition Percentage of Lok Sabha seats required under another national-party condition Number of Assembly seats required nationally

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	C	B	D	A
(C)	A	C	D	B
(D)	D	A	C	E

Correct Answer: (B) — C-B-D-A

1. 6% valid votes in four or more states - C - Vote-share requirement under one national-party condition.
2. 4 Lok Sabha seats - B - Additional seat requirement under one national-party condition.
3. 2% Lok Sabha seats - D - Percentage of Lok Sabha seats required under another national-party condition.
4. Three states - A - Number of states from which the candidates must be elected under one national-party condition.

23 Match the Following:

6% votes in state + 2 Assembly seats 6% votes in state + 1 Lok Sabha seat 3% Assembly seats or 3 seats 1/25 Lok Sabha seats or fraction

First state-party condition Fourth state-party condition Third state-party condition Second state-party condition Fifth state-party condition

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	A	C	B
(B)	E	D	A	C
(C)	A	D	C	B
(D)	B	C	D	E

Correct Answer: (C) — A-D-C-B

1. 6% votes in state + 2 Assembly seats - A - First state-party condition.
2. 6% votes in state + 1 Lok Sabha seat - D - Second state-party condition.
3. 3% Assembly seats or 3 seats - C - Third state-party condition.
4. 1/25 Lok Sabha seats or fraction - B - Fourth state-party condition.

24 Match the Following:

8% votes condition 3% Assembly seats condition 1/25 Lok Sabha seats condition 6% votes + 1 Lok Sabha seat condition

Added in 2011 One of the state-party recognition conditions Requires winning one Lok Sabha seat from the state Uses the number of Assembly seats as a benchmark Requires four Lok Sabha seats

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	D	B	C
(B)	C	A	D	B
(C)	B	C	A	E
(D)	D	B	C	A

Correct Answer: (A) — A-D-B-C

1. 8% votes condition - A - Added in 2011.
2. 3% Assembly seats condition - D - Uses the number of Assembly seats as a benchmark.
3. 1/25 Lok Sabha seats condition - B - One of the state-party recognition conditions.
4. 6% votes + 1 Lok Sabha seat condition - C - Requires winning one Lok Sabha seat from the state.

25 Match the Following:

Article 81 Article 170 Article 171 Representation of the People Act, 1950

Maximum and minimum seats in State Legislative Council Allocation and related electoral arrangements Maximum number of seats in Parliament Maximum number of seats in State Legislative Assemblies Qualifications for legislators

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	C	A	B
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (B) — C-D-A-B

1. Article 81 - C - Maximum number of seats in Parliament.
2. Article 170 - D - Maximum number of seats in State Legislative Assemblies.
3. Article 171 - A - Maximum and minimum seats in State Legislative Council.
4. Representation of the People Act, 1950 - B - Allocation and related electoral arrangements.

26 Match the Following:

Allocation of seats Delimitation Election officers Electoral rolls

Chief electoral officers and district election officers Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituencies Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituencies' voter lists House of the People, State Assemblies and State Councils Only municipal constituencies

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	D	C
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	D	B	A	C
(D)	B	D	C	A

Correct Answer: (C) — D-B-A-C

1. Allocation of seats - D - House of the People, State Assemblies and State Councils.
2. Delimitation - B - Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituencies.
3. Election officers - A - Chief electoral officers and district election officers.
4. Electoral rolls - C - Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituencies' voter lists.

27 Match the Following:

Delimitation of constituencies President Election Commission Representation of the People Act, 1950

Consulted in delimitation process Enacted to provide electoral arrangements Authority associated with delimitation action under the given provision Concerned with Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituencies Conducts judicial trials of election disputes

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	A	C	B
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	B	D	A	C
(D)	A	B	D	C

Correct Answer: (B) — D-C-A-B

1. Delimitation of constituencies - D - Concerned with Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituencies.
2. President - C - Authority associated with delimitation action under the given provision.
3. Election Commission - A - Consulted in delimitation process.
4. Representation of the People Act, 1950 - B - Enacted to provide electoral arrangements.

28 Match the Following:

Chief Electoral Officer District Election Officer Electoral Registration Officer Election officers

Category of officials involved in elections Officer responsible for electoral registration functions Officer at district level for elections Officer at state-level election administration Political party office-bearer

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	C	B	A
(B)	A	D	C	B
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (C) — D-C-B-A

1. Chief Electoral Officer - D - Officer at state-level election administration.
2. District Election Officer - C - Officer at district level for elections.
3. Electoral Registration Officer - B - Officer responsible for electoral registration functions.
4. Election officers - A - Category of officials involved in elections.

29 Match the Following:

Seats for Union Territories in Council of States Local authorities Civil courts State Legislative Councils

Related to elections to State Legislative Councils Jurisdiction barred under the Act Seats filled by representatives of Union Territories Electoral arrangement covered by the 1950 Act Responsible for appointing Members of Parliament

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	B	D	C	A

Correct Answer: (B) — C-A-B-D

1. Seats for Union Territories in Council of States - C - Seats filled by representatives of Union Territories.
2. Local authorities - A - Related to elections to State Legislative Councils.
3. Civil courts - B - Jurisdiction barred under the Act.
4. State Legislative Councils - D - Electoral arrangement covered by the 1950 Act.

30 Match the Following:

Representation of the People Act, 1950 Representation of the People Act, 1951 Electoral rolls Conduct of elections

Actual conduct of elections Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituency voter lists Allocation and delimitation framework Qualifications and disqualifications for membership Recognition of national parties only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	C	D	B	A
(C)	D	A	C	B
(D)	B	C	D	A

Correct Answer: (B) — C-D-B-A

1. Representation of the People Act, 1950 - C - Allocation and delimitation framework.
2. Representation of the People Act, 1951 - D - Qualifications and disqualifications for membership.
3. Electoral rolls - B - Parliamentary, Assembly and Council constituency voter lists.
4. Conduct of elections - A - Actual conduct of elections.

31 Match the Following:

Qualifications for membership Disqualifications for membership Notification of general elections Administrative machinery

Electoral administration Eligibility requirements for legislators Formal announcement of general elections Grounds preventing membership Allocation of parliamentary seats

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	C	A
(B)	D	B	A	C
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	A	C	B	D

Correct Answer: (A) — B-D-C-A

1. Qualifications for membership - B - Eligibility requirements for legislators.
2. Disqualifications for membership - D - Grounds preventing membership.
3. Notification of general elections - C - Formal announcement of general elections.
4. Administrative machinery - A - Electoral administration.

32 Match the Following:

Registration of political parties Conduct of elections Free supply of certain material Recognised political parties

Election-related benefit for specified candidates Electoral process governed by the 1951 Act Political organisations formally registered Political parties whose candidates may receive specified material Function of State Legislatures

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	C	B	A	D
(C)	A	D	C	B
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (B) — C-B-A-D

1. Registration of political parties - C - Political organisations formally registered.
2. Conduct of elections - B - Electoral process governed by the 1951 Act.
3. Free supply of certain material - A - Election-related benefit for specified candidates.
4. Recognised political parties - D - Political parties whose candidates may receive specified material.

33 Match the Following:

RPA 1950 — allocation of seats RPA 1950 — delimitation RPA 1951 — qualifications RPA 1951 — conduct of elections

Actual electoral process Distribution of seats among constituencies Eligibility for membership Determination of constituency boundaries Recognition of state parties only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	C	A
(B)	D	B	A	C
(C)	B	D	C	A
(D)	A	C	D	B

Correct Answer: (C) — B-D-C-A

1. RPA 1950 — allocation of seats - B - Distribution of seats among constituencies.
2. RPA 1950 — delimitation - D - Determination of constituency boundaries.
3. RPA 1951 — qualifications - C - Eligibility for membership.
4. RPA 1951 — conduct of elections - A - Actual electoral process.

34 Match the Following:

RPA 1950 — electoral rolls RPA 1950 — local authorities RPA 1950 — civil courts RPA 1951 — political parties

Registration of political parties Voter lists for specified constituencies Jurisdiction barred Electoral arrangements for State Legislative Councils Disqualification on criminal conviction

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	C	A
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	D	C	A	B

Correct Answer: (B) — B-D-C-A

1. RPA 1950 — electoral rolls - B - Voter lists for specified constituencies.
2. RPA 1950 — local authorities - D - Electoral arrangements for State Legislative Councils.
3. RPA 1950 — civil courts - C - Jurisdiction barred.
4. RPA 1951 — political parties - A - Registration of political parties.

35 Match the Following:

National party recognition State party recognition 6% valid votes 8% valid votes

One of the thresholds for state-party recognition Can apply to specified national-party conditions Required in a state for certain state-party conditions Condition added in 2011 Mandatory requirement for every political party

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	C	D
(B)	D	B	A	C
(C)	C	D	B	A
(D)	A	C	D	B

Correct Answer: (A) — B-A-C-D

1. National party recognition - B - Can apply to specified national-party conditions.
2. State party recognition - A - One of the thresholds for state-party recognition.
3. 6% valid votes - C - Required in a state for certain state-party conditions.
4. 8% valid votes - D - Condition added in 2011.

36 Match the Following:

State-party 3% condition State-party 3-seat condition State-party 1/25 condition State-party 8% condition

Minimum three Assembly seats Percentage of total valid votes in the state One twenty-fifth of Lok Sabha seats allotted to the state or fraction Percentage of Assembly seats Four Lok Sabha seats

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	A	C	B
(B)	D	A	C	B
(C)	C	D	A	E
(D)	A	B	D	C

Correct Answer: (B) — D-A-C-B

1. State-party 3% condition - D - Percentage of Assembly seats.
2. State-party 3-seat condition - A - Minimum three Assembly seats.
3. State-party 1/25 condition - C - One twenty-fifth of Lok Sabha seats allotted to the state or fraction.
4. State-party 8% condition - B - Percentage of total valid votes in the state.

37 Match the Following:

First national-party condition Second national-party condition Third national-party condition Fifth state-party condition

State-party recognition in four states 8% votes in the state 2% Lok Sabha seats and election from three states 6% votes in four or more states plus four Lok Sabha seats 3% Assembly seats

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	C	A	B
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	A	B	D	C

Correct Answer: (C) — D-C-A-B

1. First national-party condition - D - 6% votes in four or more states plus four Lok Sabha seats.
2. Second national-party condition - C - 2% Lok Sabha seats and election from three states.
3. Third national-party condition - A - State-party recognition in four states.
4. Fifth state-party condition - B - 8% votes in the state.

38 Match the Following:

RPA 1950 RPA 1951 Article 81 Article 170

Maximum seats in State Legislative Assemblies Maximum seats in Parliament Electoral framework preceding the 1951 Act Actual conduct and related electoral provisions Maximum seats in State Legislative Councils

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	C	D	B	A
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (B) — C-D-B-A

1. RPA 1950 - C - Electoral framework preceding the 1951 Act.
2. RPA 1951 - D - Actual conduct and related electoral provisions.
3. Article 81 - B - Maximum seats in Parliament.
4. Article 170 - A - Maximum seats in State Legislative Assemblies.

39 Match the Following:

Representation of the People Act, 1950 — electoral rolls Representation of the People Act, 1950 — Council of States Representation of the People Act, 1950 — State Legislative Councils Representation of the People Act, 1950 — civil courts

Local authorities for elections Manner of filling certain Union Territory seats Electoral rolls Bar on jurisdiction Qualifications of candidates

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	C	B	A	D
(C)	A	D	C	B
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (B) — C-B-A-D

1. Representation of the People Act, 1950 — electoral rolls - C - Electoral rolls.
2. Representation of the People Act, 1950 — Council of States - B - Manner of filling certain Union Territory seats.
3. Representation of the People Act, 1950 — State Legislative Councils - A - Local authorities for elections.
4. Representation of the People Act, 1950 — civil courts - D - Bar on jurisdiction.

40 Match the Following:

Registration of political parties under RPA 1951 Notification of general elections under RPA 1951 Administrative machinery under RPA 1951 Free material for recognised-party candidates

Election notification process Registration function Election administration Specified electoral facility Constituency delimitation

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	C	D
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	B	A	C	D
(D)	A	D	B	C

Correct Answer: (C) — B-A-C-D

1. Registration of political parties under RPA 1951 - B - Registration function.
2. Notification of general elections under RPA 1951 - A - Election notification process.
3. Administrative machinery under RPA 1951 - C - Election administration.
4. Free material for recognised-party candidates - D - Specified electoral facility.

41 Match the Following:

Disputes regarding elections Corrupt practices and electoral offences Bye-elections Disqualification of members

Time limit for filling vacancies Election-related offences and malpractice Election disputes and petitions Election Commission's powers concerning inquiries Declaration of assets and liabilities

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	D	A	B	C
(D)	A	C	D	B

Correct Answer: (A) — C-B-A-D

1. Disputes regarding elections - C - Election disputes and petitions.
2. Corrupt practices and electoral offences - B - Election-related offences and malpractice.
3. Bye-elections - A - Time limit for filling vacancies.
4. Disqualification of members - D - Election Commission's powers concerning inquiries.

42 Match the Following:

Nomination of candidates Candidates and their agents The poll Counting of votes

Process of determining votes polled Submission of candidature for election Voting stage of an election Persons contesting and assisting candidates Publication of election expenses

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	D	C
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	C	A	B	D
(D)	D	C	A	B

Correct Answer: (B) — B-D-C-A

1. Nomination of candidates - B - Submission of candidature for election.
2. Candidates and their agents - D - Persons contesting and assisting candidates.
3. The poll - C - Voting stage of an election.
4. Counting of votes - A - Process of determining votes polled.

43 Match the Following:

Multiple elections Publication of election results Declaration of assets and liabilities Election expenses

Financial expenditure connected with elections Disclosure by candidates Participation in more than one election Making electoral outcomes public Appointment of election officers

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	A	C	D	B
(C)	D	B	A	C
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (A) — C-D-B-A

1. Multiple elections - C - Participation in more than one election.
2. Publication of election results - D - Making electoral outcomes public.
3. Declaration of assets and liabilities - B - Disclosure by candidates.
4. Election expenses - A - Financial expenditure connected with elections.

44 Match the Following:

Election petition Trial of election petitions Appeal against election petition decision Costs and security for costs

Supreme Court Financial aspects of election litigation High Court Judicial examination of election disputes Election Commission

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	D	C	B
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (B) — C-D-A-B

1. Election petition - C - High Court.
2. Trial of election petitions - D - Judicial examination of election disputes.
3. Appeal against election petition decision - A - Supreme Court.
4. Costs and security for costs - B - Financial aspects of election litigation.

45 Match the Following:

Presentation of election petitions Withdrawal of election petitions Abatement of election petitions Appeals

Supreme Court High Court Termination through withdrawal Proceedings ending due to specified circumstances Election Commission

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	D	A
(B)	A	D	C	B
(C)	C	B	A	D
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (A) — B-C-D-A

1. Presentation of election petitions - B - High Court.
2. Withdrawal of election petitions - C - Termination through withdrawal.
3. Abatement of election petitions - D - Proceedings ending due to specified circumstances.
4. Appeals - A - Supreme Court.

46 Match the Following:

Article 82 Article 170 Article 330 Article 332

Reservation of SC/ST seats in State Legislative Assemblies Readjustment of Parliamentary constituencies Reservation of SC/ST seats in the House of the People Readjustment of State Assembly constituencies Election disputes

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	D	B	C	A

Correct Answer: (B) — B-D-C-A

1. Article 82 - B - Readjustment of Parliamentary constituencies.
2. Article 170 - D - Readjustment of State Assembly constituencies.
3. Article 330 - C - Reservation of SC/ST seats in the House of the People.
4. Article 332 - A - Reservation of SC/ST seats in State Legislative Assemblies.

47 Match the Following:

Delimitation Act, 2002 2001 Census 1971 Census 84th Constitutional Amendment

Basis for allocation of seats to Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies Ensured no inter-state delimitation till 2026 Legal basis for present delimitation exercise Basis for readjustment under Articles 82 and 170 Basis for election expenses

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	C	A	B
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (B) — C-D-A-B

1. Delimitation Act, 2002 - C - Legal basis for present delimitation exercise.
2. 2001 Census - D - Basis for readjustment under Articles 82 and 170.
3. 1971 Census - A - Basis for allocation of seats to Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies.
4. 84th Constitutional Amendment - B - Ensured no inter-state delimitation till 2026.

48 Match the Following:

First Delimitation Commission Second Delimitation Commission Third Delimitation Commission Fourth Delimitation Commission

1972 1952 2002 1962 1982

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	D	B	C	A
(C)	A	C	D	B
(D)	C	A	B	D

Correct Answer: (A) — B-D-A-C

1. First Delimitation Commission - B - 1952.
2. Second Delimitation Commission - D - 1962.
3. Third Delimitation Commission - A - 1972.
4. Fourth Delimitation Commission - C - 2002.

49 Match the Following:

Present Parliamentary constituency delimitation Delimitation Act, 2002 2001 Census Constituencies based on 2001 Census

Continue to operate according to the supplied material until 2026 Basis for present delimitation Governing legislation for present exercise Done within states on the basis of the 2001 Census Based entirely on 2021 population

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	D	A
(B)	D	C	B	A
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	A	B	C	D

Correct Answer: (B) — D-C-B-A

1. Present Parliamentary constituency delimitation - D - Done within states on the basis of the 2001 Census.
2. Delimitation Act, 2002 - C - Governing legislation for present exercise.
3. 2001 Census - B - Basis for present delimitation.
4. Constituencies based on 2001 Census - A - Continue to operate according to the supplied material until 2026.

50 Match the Following:

Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976 Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991

Union Territories National Capital Territory of Delhi Offices of profit and parliamentary disqualification SC/ST lists and electoral representation Presidential elections

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	D	C	B	A
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (A) — C-D-A-B

1. Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 - C - Offices of profit and parliamentary disqualification.
2. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976 - D - SC/ST lists and electoral representation.
3. Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 - A - Union Territories.
4. Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991 - B - National Capital Territory of Delhi.

51 Match the Following:

Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991 Prevention of Disqualification Act, 1959

Union Territories President and Vice-President elections Offices of profit Delhi's National Capital Territory governance State Legislative Council elections

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	B	A	D	C
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	A	D	B	C

Correct Answer: (B) — B-A-D-C

1. Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 - B - President and Vice-President elections.
2. Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 - A - Union Territories.
3. Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991 - D - Delhi's National Capital Territory governance.
4. Prevention of Disqualification Act, 1959 - C - Offices of profit.

52 Match the Following:

RPA 1951 — election disputes RPA 1951 — corrupt practices RPA 1951 — bye-elections RPA 1951 — Election Commission inquiries

Disqualification inquiries Vacancy filling Electoral offences and malpractice Election petitions and related proceedings Delimitation based on census

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	C	B	A
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (A) — D-C-B-A

1. RPA 1951 — election disputes - D - Election petitions and related proceedings.
2. RPA 1951 — corrupt practices - C - Electoral offences and malpractice.
3. RPA 1951 — bye-elections - B - Vacancy filling.
4. RPA 1951 — Election Commission inquiries - A - Disqualification inquiries.

53 Match the Following:

Election Commission's inquiry powers Bye-election provisions Miscellaneous election provisions Bar on civil court jurisdiction

Restriction on ordinary civil court jurisdiction Inquiry concerning disqualification of members Additional election-related matters Filling electoral vacancies Allocation of seats according to census

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	B	C	A
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	A	C	D	B
(D)	C	A	B	D

Correct Answer: (B) — B-D-C-A

1. Election Commission's inquiry powers - B - Inquiry concerning disqualification of members.
2. Bye-election provisions - D - Filling electoral vacancies.
3. Miscellaneous election provisions - C - Additional election-related matters.
4. Bar on civil court jurisdiction - A - Restriction on ordinary civil court jurisdiction.

54 Match the Following:

Articles 82 and 170 Articles 330 and 332 2001 Census 1971 Census

Reservation of SC/ST seats Readjustment and division of constituencies Basis for present delimitation Basis for allocation of seats to constituencies Basis for election expenses

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	C	D
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	D	B	C	A
(D)	A	C	D	B

Correct Answer: (A) — B-A-C-D

1. Articles 82 and 170 - B - Readjustment and division of constituencies.
2. Articles 330 and 332 - A - Reservation of SC/ST seats.
3. 2001 Census - C - Basis for present delimitation.
4. 1971 Census - D - Basis for allocation of seats to constituencies.

55 Match the Following:

Delimitation Commission, 1952 Delimitation Commission, 1962 Delimitation Commission, 1972 Delimitation Commission, 2002

Fourth commission First commission Third commission Second commission Fifth commission

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	B	D	C	A
(D)	D	C	A	B

Correct Answer: (C) — B-D-C-A

1. Delimitation Commission, 1952 - B - First commission.
2. Delimitation Commission, 1962 - D - Second commission.
3. Delimitation Commission, 1972 - C - Third commission.
4. Delimitation Commission, 2002 - A - Fourth commission.

56 Match the Following:

Article 330 Article 332 House of the People State Legislative Assemblies

SC/ST reservation at state Assembly level SC/ST reservation at Union Parliament's lower House level Lok Sabha State-level elected legislative bodies State Legislative Councils

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	C	D
(B)	A	B	D	C
(C)	C	D	B	A
(D)	D	C	A	B

Correct Answer: (A) — B-A-C-D

1. Article 330 - B - SC/ST reservation at Union Parliament's lower House level.
2. Article 332 - A - SC/ST reservation at state Assembly level.
3. House of the People - C - Lok Sabha.
4. State Legislative Assemblies - D - State-level elected legislative bodies.

57 Match the Following:

Election petitions Election results Assets and liabilities Election expenses

Financial disclosure by candidates Election litigation Electoral expenditure Publication of electoral outcome Delimitation proceedings

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	B	D	A	C
(C)	D	B	C	A
(D)	A	C	B	D

Correct Answer: (B) — B-D-A-C

1. Election petitions - B - Election litigation.
2. Election results - D - Publication of electoral outcome.
3. Assets and liabilities - A - Financial disclosure by candidates.
4. Election expenses - C - Electoral expenditure.

58 Match the Following:

Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act SC/ST Orders (Amendment) Act Government of Union Territories Act Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act

1963 1952 1976 1959 1991

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (B) — D-C-A-B

1. Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act - D - 1959.
2. SC/ST Orders (Amendment) Act - C - 1976.
3. Government of Union Territories Act - A - 1963.
4. Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act - B - 1952.

59 Match the Following:

RPA 1951 — nomination RPA 1951 — poll RPA 1951 — counting RPA 1951 — election expenses

Determination of votes Financial expenditure connected with candidature Submission of candidature Voting process Constituency readjustment

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	C	D
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (C) — C-D-A-B

1. RPA 1951 — nomination - C - Submission of candidature.
2. RPA 1951 — poll - D - Voting process.
3. RPA 1951 — counting - A - Determination of votes.
4. RPA 1951 — election expenses - B - Financial expenditure connected with candidature.

60 Match the Following:

Delimitation Election disputes Disqualification inquiries Presidential elections

Election Commission's inquiry powers Delimitation Act, 2002 Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 Election petitions and appeals Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	D	B	C	A
(C)	A	C	D	B
(D)	C	A	B	D

Correct Answer: (A) — B-D-A-C

1. Delimitation - B - Delimitation Act, 2002.
2. Election disputes - D - Election petitions and appeals.
3. Disqualification inquiries - A - Election Commission's inquiry powers.
4. Presidential elections - C - Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.

61 Match the Following:

Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 Conduct of Elections Rules Prohibition of Simultaneous Membership Rules, 1950 Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974

Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections Preparation and publication of electoral rolls Conduct of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures Simultaneous membership Election symbols

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	D	A
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	D	B	A	C
(D)	A	D	C	B

Correct Answer: (A) — B-C-D-A

1. Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 - B - They provide for preparation and publication of electoral rolls.
2. Conduct of Elections Rules - C - They facilitate the conduct of elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.
3. Prohibition of Simultaneous Membership Rules, 1950 - D - They relate to simultaneous membership.
4. Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 - A - They relate to Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections.

62 Match the Following:

Members of Lok Sabha (Disqualification on Ground of Defection) Rules, 1985 Members of Rajya Sabha (Disqualification on Ground of Defection) Rules, 1985 Members of Lok Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004 Members of Rajya Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004

Assets and liabilities of Rajya Sabha members Defection-related disqualification of Lok Sabha members Assets and liabilities of Lok Sabha members Defection-related disqualification of Rajya Sabha members Presidential election procedure

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	D	A	B	C
(D)	A	C	D	B

Correct Answer: (B) — B-D-C-A

1. Members of Lok Sabha (Disqualification on Ground of Defection) Rules, 1985 - B - They concern defection-related disqualification of Lok Sabha members.
2. Members of Rajya Sabha (Disqualification on Ground of Defection) Rules, 1985 - D - They concern defection-related disqualification of Rajya Sabha members.
3. Members of Lok Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004 - C - They concern assets and liabilities of Lok Sabha members.
4. Members of Rajya Sabha (Declaration of Assets and Liabilities) Rules, 2004 - A - They concern assets and liabilities of Rajya Sabha members.

63 Match the Following:

Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 Registration of Political Parties (Furnishing of Additional Particulars) Order, 1992 Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974

Electoral rolls Political party registration particulars Election symbols and party recognition Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections Defection proceedings

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	A	C	D	B
(C)	D	A	B	C
(D)	B	D	C	A

Correct Answer: (A) — C-B-A-D

1. Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 - C - It deals with specification, reservation, choice and allotment of election symbols.
2. Registration of Political Parties (Furnishing of Additional Particulars) Order, 1992 - B - It requires additional particulars from bodies seeking political party registration.
3. Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 - A - It concerns preparation and publication of electoral rolls.
4. Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 - D - It relates to Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections.

64 Match the Following:

Election Symbols Order, 1968 Registration of Political Parties Order, 1992 Anti-Defection Law 10th Schedule

Political party registration Defection Election symbols and recognition of parties Constitutional schedule containing anti-defection provisions Electoral rolls

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	C	B	D
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	D	B	A	C
(D)	B	D	C	A

Correct Answer: (B) — C-A-B-D

1. Election Symbols Order, 1968 - C - It concerns election symbols and recognition of political parties.
2. Registration of Political Parties Order, 1992 - A - It concerns additional particulars for political party registration.
3. Anti-Defection Law - B - It deals with political defection.
4. 10th Schedule - D - It contains the constitutional anti-defection provisions.

65 Match the Following:

52nd Constitutional Amendment 91st Constitutional Amendment 10th Schedule Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191

Constitutional provisions changed by the 52nd Amendment Anti-defection provisions Strength of Council of Ministers and related restrictions Original constitutional insertion of anti-defection law Election symbols

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	C	B	A
(B)	C	B	D	A
(C)	A	D	C	B
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (A) — D-C-B-A

1. 52nd Constitutional Amendment - D - It originally inserted the Anti-Defection Law.
2. 91st Constitutional Amendment - C - It reinforced the law and limited the size of Councils of Ministers.
3. 10th Schedule - B - It contains the anti-defection provisions.
4. Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191 - A - These articles were changed by the 52nd Amendment.

66 Match the Following:

Union Council of Ministers State Council of Ministers State Council of Ministers minimum strength Disqualified defector

Cannot become a minister Not less than 12 members Not more than 15% of Lok Sabha strength Not more than 15% of State Legislative Assembly strength Must comprise exactly 15 members

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	C	B	A
(B)	C	D	B	A
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (B) — C-D-B-A

1. Union Council of Ministers - C - Its size cannot exceed 15% of Lok Sabha strength.
2. State Council of Ministers - D - Its size cannot exceed 15% of State Legislative Assembly strength.
3. State Council of Ministers minimum strength - B - The State Council of Ministers shall not be less than 12.
4. Disqualified defector - A - A member disqualified on defection grounds cannot become a minister.

67 Match the Following:

Voluntarily giving up party membership Voting contrary to party direction Independently elected member Nominated member

Joining a political party after six months Joining any political party Defection through voluntarily giving up membership Defection through voting or abstaining contrary to party direction Joining a party immediately after nomination

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (A) — C-D-B-A

1. Voluntarily giving up party membership - C - It is a ground of defection for an elected member.
2. Voting contrary to party direction - D - Contradicting the party direction while voting or abstaining attracts disqualification.
3. Independently elected member - B - Joining any political party attracts disqualification.
4. Nominated member - A - Joining a political party after six months attracts disqualification.

68 Match the Following:

Merger exception Split provision Speaker or Chairman Judicial review

Removed by the 91st Amendment Final decision on defection disqualification at House level Available where two-thirds legislators merge with another party Recognised through Kihoto Hollohan case Requires unanimous decision of all legislators

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	B	D	C	A

Correct Answer: (B) — C-A-B-D

1. Merger exception - C - Two-thirds legislators merging with another party are protected from disqualification.
2. Split provision - A - The one-third split exception was removed by the 91st Amendment.
3. Speaker or Chairman - B - The presiding officer makes the final decision at House level.
4. Judicial review - D - The Kihoto Hollohan case recognised judicial review.

69 Match the Following:

Speaker Chairman President Election Commission

Consulted regarding certain parliamentary disqualifications Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha Constitutional authority consulted in disqualification matters Presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha Makes anti-defection decisions for every House

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	D	B	C	A
(C)	A	C	D	B
(D)	C	A	B	D

Correct Answer: (A) — B-D-A-C

1. Speaker - B - The Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha.
2. Chairman - D - The Chairman presides over the Rajya Sabha.
3. President - A - The President acts in consultation with the Election Commission in specified disqualification matters.
4. Election Commission - C - It is consulted in specified constitutional disqualification matters.

70 Match the Following:

Chairman or Speaker resigning from political party Chairman or Speaker rejoining political party Two-thirds legislators One-third legislators

May rejoin after demitting the presiding position Merger exception Split exception removed by the 91st Amendment May resign from party without disqualification Automatic disqualification

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	D	B	C
(B)	D	A	B	C
(C)	C	B	D	A
(D)	B	C	A	D

Correct Answer: (B) — D-A-B-C

1. Chairman or Speaker resigning from political party - D - A person elected as presiding officer may resign from the party without disqualification.
2. Chairman or Speaker rejoining political party - A - Rejoining is permitted after demitting the presiding position.
3. Two-thirds legislators - B - A merger involving two-thirds legislators attracts the merger exception.
4. One-third legislators - C - The split exception was removed by the 91st Amendment.

71 Match the Following:

Office of profit Unsound mind Undischarged insolvent Foreign citizenship

Declared as such by a court Acquisition of citizenship of another country Holding an office attracting constitutional disqualification Being legally undischarged from insolvency Absence from House for 60 days

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	D	B
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	B	D	A	C

Correct Answer: (A) — C-A-D-B

1. Office of profit - C - Holding a disqualifying office of profit is a ground under Article 102.
2. Unsound mind - A - The person must be declared of unsound mind by a court.
3. Undischarged insolvent - D - Being an undischarged insolvent is a constitutional ground of disqualification.
4. Foreign citizenship - B - Acquiring foreign citizenship is a ground of disqualification.

72 Match the Following:

Article 102 President Election Commission Disqualification of an MP

Constitutional provision dealing with parliamentary membership disqualification Consulted by the President in specified disqualification matters Acts after consultation with the Election Commission May arise from office of profit, unsound mind, insolvency or foreign citizenship Decided exclusively by Speaker

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	D	A
(B)	A	C	B	D
(C)	D	A	C	B
(D)	C	D	A	B

Correct Answer: (B) — A-C-B-D

1. Article 102 - A - It deals with disqualifications for membership of Parliament.
2. President - C - The President acts after consultation with the Election Commission in specified cases.
3. Election Commission - B - It is consulted by the President in such disqualification matters.
4. Disqualification of an MP - D - It may arise from the listed constitutional grounds.

73 Match the Following:

Absence from House 60 days Prorogation Adjournment for four consecutive days

Period excluded while calculating absence Constitutional basis for absence-related disqualification Specified period of absence without permission Not counted in the 60-day calculation Automatically causes disqualification in every case

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	C	D	B	A
(C)	D	A	C	B
(D)	A	B	D	C

Correct Answer: (A) — B-C-A-D

1. Absence from House - B - Absence without information or permission is addressed as a disqualification ground.
2. 60 days - C - Absence for 60 days without permission is specified in the supplied material.
3. Prorogation - A - It is excluded while calculating the period of absence.
4. Adjournment for four consecutive days - D - Such a period is not counted in the calculation.

74 Match the Following:

Representation of the People Act, 1951 Constitutional disqualification Anti-defection law Absence-related disqualification

Article 102 Political party-related grounds Electoral offences and specified convictions Absence for specified period without permission Election Symbols Order

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	C	B	D
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	D	B	C	A
(D)	B	D	A	C

Correct Answer: (B) — C-A-B-D

1. Representation of the People Act, 1951 - C - It provides disqualification grounds related to electoral offences and specified convictions.
2. Constitutional disqualification - A - Article 102 deals with disqualifications for membership of Parliament.
3. Anti-defection law - B - It provides political party-related disqualification grounds.
4. Absence-related disqualification - D - Specified absence without permission can lead to disqualification.

75 Match the Following:

Corruption Electoral offences Untouchability-related social offences Conviction for more than two years

RPA, 1951 disqualification ground Electoral offence-related disqualification Social crime-related disqualification Conviction-related disqualification Anti-defection exception

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	C	D
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	B	A	D	C
(D)	C	D	B	A

Correct Answer: (A) — A-B-C-D

1. Corruption - A - It is listed as a disqualification ground under the RPA, 1951.
2. Electoral offences - B - They constitute RPA-related disqualification grounds.
3. Untouchability-related social offences - C - Specified social crimes can result in disqualification.
4. Conviction for more than two years - D - The supplied material lists such conviction as a disqualification ground.

76 Match the Following:

Anti-defection law Parliament State Legislature President

Applies through constitutional provisions and legislative framework Applies to members of Parliament Applies to members of State Legislatures Empowered to make rules giving effect to anti-defection provisions Has no application to State Legislatures

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	D	C
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	C	D	A	B

Correct Answer: (B) — A-B-C-D

1. Anti-defection law - A - It operates through the constitutional anti-defection framework.
2. Parliament - B - The law applies to members of Parliament.
3. State Legislature - C - The law also applies to members of State Legislatures.
4. President - D - The President is empowered to make rules giving effect to the provisions.

77 Match the Following:

Dinesh Goswami Committee Anti-defection Law 91st Constitutional Amendment 52nd Constitutional Amendment

Important committee associated with anti-defection Reinforcement of anti-defection provisions and ministerial restrictions Introduced the Anti-Defection Law Preventing political defections motivated by office or material benefits Regulation of election symbols

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	C	D
(B)	D	C	B	A
(C)	B	D	A	C
(D)	C	A	D	B

Correct Answer: (A) — A-B-C-D

1. Dinesh Goswami Committee - A - It is an important committee associated with anti-defection.
2. Anti-defection Law - B - It was reinforced by the 91st Constitutional Amendment.
3. 91st Constitutional Amendment - C - It followed and reinforced the anti-defection framework.
4. 52nd Constitutional Amendment - D - It introduced the Anti-Defection Law in 1985.

78 Match the Following:

Disqualification proceedings under the 10th Schedule Proceedings in Parliament Proceedings in State Legislature Judicial review

Recognised in Kihoto Hollohan Proceedings relating to Members of Parliament Proceedings relating to members of State Legislatures Considered proceedings in the concerned legislature Decided by Election Commission in every case

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	B	C	A
(B)	D	B	C	A
(C)	A	C	B	D
(D)	C	A	D	B

Correct Answer: (B) — D-B-C-A

1. Disqualification proceedings under the 10th Schedule - D - They are considered proceedings in Parliament or the State Legislature.
2. Proceedings in Parliament - B - They concern Members of Parliament.
3. Proceedings in State Legislature - C - They concern members of State Legislatures.
4. Judicial review - A - It was recognised in the Kihoto Hollohan case.

79 Match the Following:

52nd Amendment, 1985 91st Amendment, 2002 Split by one-third members Merger by two-thirds members

Still a valid exception to disqualification Original anti-defection constitutional amendment Exception removed from anti-defection law Reinforced anti-defection provisions Required unanimous approval

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	C	A
(B)	C	B	A	D
(C)	A	C	D	B
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (A) — B-D-C-A

1. 52nd Amendment, 1985 - B - It introduced the Anti-Defection Law.
2. 91st Amendment, 2002 - D - It reinforced the anti-defection framework.
3. Split by one-third members - C - The split exception was removed by the 91st Amendment.
4. Merger by two-thirds members - A - A two-thirds merger provides the specified exception from disqualification.

80 Match the Following:

Article 102 Anti-Defection Law RPA, 1951 Presiding officer

Disqualification arising from specified electoral offences and convictions Decision on defection-related disqualification Constitutional grounds for disqualification of MPs Political party-related disqualification Preparation of electoral rolls

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (B) — C-D-A-B

1. Article 102 - C - It provides constitutional grounds for disqualification of Members of Parliament.
2. Anti-Defection Law - D - It provides political party-related disqualification grounds.
3. RPA, 1951 - A - It provides disqualification related to specified electoral offences and convictions.
4. Presiding officer - B - The Speaker or Chairman decides defection-related disqualification questions.