Polity Chapter 33 MCQs - Constitutional Amendment (संविधान संशोधन)
1 Which Article of the Constitution primarily deals with the power and procedure for amendment of the Constitution? संविधान के संशोधन की शक्ति और प्रक्रिया से मुख्यतः कौन-सा अनुच्छेद संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Article 368
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for doing so.
2 The Constitution of India provides for how many broad methods of amendment? भारत का संविधान संशोधन के कितने व्यापक तरीकों का प्रावधान करता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Three
Constitutional provisions can broadly be amended by a simple majority of Parliament, by a special majority of Parliament, and by a special majority of Parliament plus ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
3 Which of the following can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament and is therefore not considered an amendment under Article 368? निम्नलिखित में से किसे संसद के साधारण बहुमत से संशोधित किया जा सकता है और इसलिए इसे अनुच्छेद 368 के तहत संशोधन नहीं माना जाता?
Correct Answer: (3) Formation of new States and alteration of their boundaries
Parliament can alter the area, boundaries or names of States under Articles 2, 3 and 4 by ordinary legislation. Such laws are not deemed amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
4 What is the minimum majority required in each House of Parliament for an amendment under the special majority procedure of Article 368? अनुच्छेद 368 की विशेष बहुमत प्रक्रिया के तहत प्रत्येक सदन में संशोधन के लिए न्यूनतम आवश्यक बहुमत क्या है?
Correct Answer: (3) Majority of total membership plus two-thirds of members present and voting
An amendment under Article 368 requires a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
5 In the case of an amendment requiring ratification by States, ratification is required from at least: ऐसे संविधान संशोधन के मामले में जिसमें राज्यों के अनुसमर्थन की आवश्यकता होती है, कम-से-कम कितने राज्यों के अनुसमर्थन की आवश्यकता होती है?
Correct Answer: (2) Half of the States
For specified federal provisions, an amendment must be passed by the special majority in Parliament and then ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States.
6 Which of the following is NOT required for a constitutional amendment bill under Article 368? अनुच्छेद 368 के तहत संविधान संशोधन विधेयक के लिए निम्नलिखित में से किसकी आवश्यकता नहीं होती?
Correct Answer: (4) Prior approval of the President before introduction
A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament without prior permission of the President. After being duly passed, the President is constitutionally required to give assent.
7 A Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 can be introduced in: अनुच्छेद 368 के तहत संविधान संशोधन विधेयक कहां प्रस्तुत किया जा सकता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Either House of Parliament
A Constitution Amendment Bill may originate in either House of Parliament. There is no requirement that it must originate in the Lok Sabha.
8 If there is a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a Constitution Amendment Bill, which procedure is available? यदि संविधान संशोधन विधेयक पर लोकसभा और राज्यसभा के बीच गतिरोध उत्पन्न हो जाए, तो कौन-सी प्रक्रिया उपलब्ध है?
Correct Answer: (4) No joint sitting is provided
The Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock on a Constitution Amendment Bill. Both Houses must separately pass the bill with the constitutionally prescribed majority.
9 Which statement about the President's role in a Constitution Amendment Bill is correct? संविधान संशोधन विधेयक में राष्ट्रपति की भूमिका के संबंध में कौन-सा कथन सही है?
Correct Answer: (4) The President shall give assent after the bill is duly passed
After the 24th Constitutional Amendment, Article 368 requires the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill duly passed according to the constitutional procedure.
10 Which Constitutional Amendment Act made the President's assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill mandatory? किस संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम ने संविधान संशोधन विधेयक पर राष्ट्रपति की स्वीकृति को अनिवार्य बनाया?
Correct Answer: (2) 24th Amendment
The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971 affirmed Parliament's power to amend the Constitution and made it mandatory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill duly passed by Parliament.
11 Which Constitutional Amendment is known for restoring Parliament's unrestricted power to amend Fundamental Rights after the Golaknath judgment? गोलकनाथ निर्णय के बाद मौलिक अधिकारों में संशोधन करने की संसद की शक्ति को स्पष्ट रूप से पुनर्स्थापित करने वाला संविधान संशोधन कौन-सा है?
Correct Answer: (2) 24th Amendment
The 24th Amendment amended Articles 13 and 368 to affirm that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, subject to later judicial limitations under the basic structure doctrine.
12 In which landmark case did the Supreme Court hold that Parliament cannot amend the Fundamental Rights? किस ऐतिहासिक मामले में सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने कहा था कि संसद मौलिक अधिकारों में संशोधन नहीं कर सकती?
Correct Answer: (2) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
In the 1967 Golaknath judgment, the Supreme Court held by a narrow majority that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights. The decision was subsequently addressed by the 24th Constitutional Amendment.
13 The basic structure doctrine of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in: संविधान की मूल संरचना के सिद्धांत को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने किस मामले में प्रतिपादित किया?
Correct Answer: (3) Kesavananda Bharati case
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution is wide but does not extend to destroying or altering its basic structure.
14 Which of the following is NOT generally regarded as part of the basic structure of the Constitution? निम्नलिखित में से किसे सामान्यतः संविधान की मूल संरचना का हिस्सा नहीं माना जाता?
Correct Answer: (4) Every provision of the Directive Principles individually
The Supreme Court has recognized several features as part of the basic structure, including constitutional supremacy, judicial review and federalism. Not every individual constitutional provision automatically forms part of the basic structure.
15 Which case established that the power of judicial review over constitutional amendments is itself part of the basic structure? किस मामले में यह स्थापित किया गया कि संविधान संशोधनों की न्यायिक समीक्षा की शक्ति स्वयं मूल संरचना का हिस्सा है?
Correct Answer: (3) Kesavananda Bharati case
The Kesavananda Bharati judgment recognized that although Parliament possesses constituent power to amend the Constitution, the exercise of that power is subject to judicial review to ensure that the basic structure is not destroyed.
16 Which Constitutional Amendment attempted to make Parliament's amending power unlimited by inserting clauses into Article 368? किस संविधान संशोधन ने अनुच्छेद 368 में प्रावधान जोड़कर संसद की संशोधन शक्ति को असीमित बनाने का प्रयास किया?
Correct Answer: (2) 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment attempted to establish that there would be no limitation on Parliament's constituent power and that no constitutional amendment could be questioned in court. These provisions were later struck down in Minerva Mills.
17 Which case struck down clauses inserted into Article 368 by the 42nd Amendment that sought to exclude judicial review of constitutional amendments? किस मामले में 42वें संशोधन द्वारा अनुच्छेद 368 में जोड़े गए उन प्रावधानों को निरस्त किया गया जो संविधान संशोधनों की न्यायिक समीक्षा को बाहर करना चाहते थे?
Correct Answer: (3) Minerva Mills case
In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court struck down provisions of the 42nd Amendment that attempted to exclude judicial review and make Parliament's amending power unlimited.
18 The Supreme Court's power to review constitutional amendments is primarily limited by the: संवैधानिक संशोधनों की समीक्षा करने की सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की शक्ति मुख्यतः किस सिद्धांत द्वारा सीमित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Basic Structure Doctrine
Under the basic structure doctrine, Parliament may amend the Constitution but cannot alter or destroy its basic structure. The Supreme Court can review amendments on this ground.
19 Which of the following constitutional amendments was the first amendment to the Constitution of India? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भारत के संविधान का पहला संविधान संशोधन था?
Correct Answer: (2) 1st Amendment Act, 1951
The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 introduced several important changes, including provisions relating to reasonable restrictions on certain Fundamental Rights and the Ninth Schedule.
20 The Ninth Schedule was introduced into the Constitution by the: नौवीं अनुसूची को संविधान में किसके द्वारा जोड़ा गया?
Correct Answer: (2) 1st Constitutional Amendment
The First Amendment Act, 1951 inserted the Ninth Schedule to protect specified laws, particularly land reform laws, from certain forms of judicial challenge. Later judicial decisions clarified that Ninth Schedule laws inserted after April 24, 1973 remain subject to basic structure review.
21 The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 is mainly associated with: 7वाँ संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1956 मुख्यतः किससे संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Reorganization of States and abolition of the classification of States into Parts A, B, C and D
The 7th Amendment implemented constitutional changes associated with the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 and replaced the earlier classification of States and Part C territories.
22 Which Constitutional Amendment is known as the "Mini-Constitution"? किस संविधान संशोधन को "लघु संविधान" कहा जाता है?
Correct Answer: (2) 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 made extensive changes to the Constitution and is therefore popularly known as the "Mini-Constitution".
23 Which words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment? 42वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा प्रस्तावना में कौन-से शब्द जोड़े गए?
Correct Answer: (3) Socialist, Secular and Integrity
The 42nd Amendment added the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to describe the Republic and changed "unity of the Nation" to "unity and integrity of the Nation".
24 Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment? मौलिक कर्तव्यों को संविधान में किस संविधान संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया?
Correct Answer: (3) 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Part IVA containing Article 51A and originally introduced ten Fundamental Duties. The 86th Amendment later added the eleventh duty relating to education of children.
25 Which Constitutional Amendment Act added the Fundamental Right to Education under Article 21A? किस संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम ने अनुच्छेद 21A के तहत शिक्षा के मौलिक अधिकार को जोड़ा?
Correct Answer: (3) 86th Amendment
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children between six and fourteen years of age.
26 Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions? किस संविधान संशोधन ने पंचायती राज संस्थाओं को संवैधानिक दर्जा दिया?
Correct Answer: (3) 73rd Amendment
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule and provided constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
27 Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to urban local bodies? किस संविधान संशोधन ने शहरी स्थानीय निकायों को संवैधानिक दर्जा दिया?
Correct Answer: (2) 74th Amendment
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IXA and the Twelfth Schedule and provided a constitutional framework for municipalities and other urban local bodies.
28 Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years? किस संविधान संशोधन ने मतदान की आयु 21 वर्ष से घटाकर 18 वर्ष कर दी?
Correct Answer: (4) 61st Amendment
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 to 18 years by amending Article 326.
29 The anti-defection provisions were added to the Constitution by which Amendment? दल-बदल विरोधी प्रावधानों को संविधान में किस संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया?
Correct Answer: (2) 52nd Amendment
The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the Anti-Defection Law, to deal with disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.
30 Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the provision permitting one-third split in a political party as a protection against disqualification? किस संविधान संशोधन ने राजनीतिक दल में एक-तिहाई विभाजन को दल-बदल के आधार पर अयोग्यता से बचाने वाले प्रावधान को समाप्त किया?
Correct Answer: (3) 91st Amendment
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 removed the "split" exception from the Tenth Schedule. It retained the merger exception, which requires at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party.
31 Which Constitutional Amendment limited the size of the Council of Ministers in the Union and States to 15% of the strength of the respective House? किस संविधान संशोधन ने केंद्र और राज्यों में मंत्रिपरिषद के आकार को संबंधित सदन की सदस्य संख्या के 15% तक सीमित किया?
Correct Answer: (3) 91st Amendment
The 91st Amendment inserted Articles 75(1A) and 164(1A), limiting the total number of ministers at the Union and State levels to not more than 15% of the total membership of the respective House.
32 Which Constitutional Amendment introduced reservation for Other Backward Classes in educational institutions under Article 15(5)? किस संविधान संशोधन ने अनुच्छेद 15(5) के तहत शैक्षणिक संस्थानों में अन्य पिछड़ा वर्ग के लिए आरक्षण का प्रावधान किया?
Correct Answer: (3) 93rd Amendment
The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005 inserted Article 15(5), enabling the State to make special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes and SCs and STs in educational institutions, including private unaided institutions, subject to the constitutional provision.
33 The 97th Constitutional Amendment is primarily associated with: 97वाँ संविधान संशोधन मुख्यतः किससे संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (2) Co-operative societies
The 97th Amendment gave constitutional recognition to co-operative societies by inserting provisions including Article 43B and Part IXB. However, the Supreme Court later held that the amendment was invalid insofar as it applied to State co-operative societies because the required ratification by half of the States was not obtained.
34 The 101st Constitutional Amendment is associated with the introduction of: 101वाँ संविधान संशोधन किसकी शुरुआत से संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Goods and Services Tax
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the constitutional framework for GST, including Article 246A, Article 269A and Article 279A establishing the GST Council.
35 Which Article, inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment, gives Parliament and State Legislatures concurrent power to make laws relating to GST, subject to the constitutional scheme? 101वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया कौन-सा अनुच्छेद GST से संबंधित कानून बनाने की संसद और राज्य विधानमंडलों की शक्ति प्रदान करता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Article 246A
Article 246A provides special legislative power for GST. Parliament has exclusive power regarding GST on inter-State supplies, while Parliament and State Legislatures have power regarding GST within their respective spheres.
36 Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes? किस संविधान संशोधन ने राष्ट्रीय पिछड़ा वर्ग आयोग को संवैधानिक दर्जा दिया?
Correct Answer: (3) 102nd Amendment
The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018 inserted Article 338B and gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes.
37 Which Constitutional Amendment introduced a constitutional provision for reservation for Economically Weaker Sections in education and public employment? किस संविधान संशोधन ने शिक्षा और लोक रोजगार में आर्थिक रूप से कमजोर वर्गों के लिए आरक्षण का संवैधानिक प्रावधान किया?
Correct Answer: (3) 103rd Amendment
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), enabling reservation and special provisions for Economically Weaker Sections, subject to the constitutional framework.
38 The 103rd Constitutional Amendment was upheld by the Supreme Court in which landmark case? 103वें संविधान संशोधन को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने किस ऐतिहासिक मामले में बरकरार रखा?
Correct Answer: (3) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India
In 2022, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the 103rd Amendment by a majority in Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India, concerning EWS reservation under Articles 15(6) and 16(6).
39 Which Constitutional Amendment extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies up to 2030? किस संविधान संशोधन ने लोकसभा और राज्य विधानसभाओं में अनुसूचित जाति और अनुसूचित जनजाति के लिए सीटों का आरक्षण 2030 तक बढ़ाया?
Correct Answer: (2) 104th Amendment
The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act extended reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years, up to 2030. It did not extend the nomination of Anglo-Indian members.
40 The 105th Constitutional Amendment primarily relates to the power of States and Union Territories to identify: 105वाँ संविधान संशोधन मुख्यतः राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों की किसकी पहचान करने की शक्ति से संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Socially and Educationally Backward Classes
The 105th Amendment, 2021 clarified that States and Union Territories may maintain their own lists of socially and educationally backward classes for their own purposes, distinct from the Central List.
41 The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 is popularly associated with: 106वाँ संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 2023 मुख्यतः किससे संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
The 106th Amendment introduced Articles 330A, 332A and 334A to provide reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, including reservation within seats reserved for SCs and STs.
42 Which of the following amendments required ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures because it affected the federal provisions of the Constitution? निम्नलिखित में से किस संशोधन के लिए संघीय प्रावधानों को प्रभावित करने के कारण कम-से-कम आधे राज्य विधानमंडलों के अनुसमर्थन की आवश्यकता होती है?
Correct Answer: (4) 101st Amendment
The 101st Amendment altered the constitutional distribution of legislative and taxation powers between the Union and States and therefore required ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
43 Which of the following subjects requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures when amended? निम्नलिखित में से किस विषय में संशोधन के लिए कम-से-कम आधे राज्य विधानमंडलों के अनुसमर्थन की आवश्यकता होती है?
Correct Answer: (3) Election of the President
Provisions relating to the election of the President are among the federal provisions listed in the proviso to Article 368(2), requiring ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
44 Which of the following requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures for constitutional amendment? संविधान संशोधन के लिए निम्नलिखित में से किसमें कम-से-कम आधे राज्य विधानमंडलों के अनुसमर्थन की आवश्यकता होती है?
Correct Answer: (4) Representation of States in Parliament
Any constitutional amendment affecting the representation of States in Parliament falls within the federal provisions requiring ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
45 Which statement correctly distinguishes a constitutional amendment by simple majority from one under Article 368? साधारण बहुमत से किए गए संवैधानिक परिवर्तन और अनुच्छेद 368 के तहत किए गए संशोधन के बीच कौन-सा कथन सही अंतर बताता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Some constitutional provisions can be changed by ordinary legislation using a simple majority, outside Article 368
Not every constitutional change follows Article 368. Certain matters, such as formation or alteration of States under Articles 2 and 3, can be dealt with through ordinary legislation passed by simple majority.
46 Which of the following statements about State Legislatures and constitutional amendment is correct? राज्य विधानमंडलों और संविधान संशोधन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
Correct Answer: (3) State Legislatures can only ratify certain amendments; they cannot initiate an Article 368 amendment bill
A Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 can be introduced only in Parliament. State Legislatures have a ratification role only for specified federal provisions.
47 Consider the following statements regarding constitutional amendment: I. Parliament's amending power is subject to the basic structure doctrine. II. A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House. III. There is a provision for joint sitting if the two Houses disagree. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? संविधान संशोधन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. संसद की संशोधन शक्ति मूल संरचना के सिद्धांत के अधीन है। II. संविधान संशोधन विधेयक किसी भी सदन में प्रस्तुत किया जा सकता है। III. दोनों सदनों में असहमति होने पर संयुक्त बैठक का प्रावधान है। उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Correct Answer: (3) Only I and II
Parliament's amending power is limited by the basic structure doctrine, and an amendment bill may originate in either House. The Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting for Constitution Amendment Bills.
48 Consider the following statements about the basic structure doctrine: I. It means Parliament cannot amend any provision of the Constitution. II. It prevents Parliament from destroying the basic features of the Constitution. III. It was established in the Kesavananda Bharati case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? मूल संरचना के सिद्धांत के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. इसका अर्थ है कि संसद संविधान के किसी भी प्रावधान में संशोधन नहीं कर सकती। II. यह संसद को संविधान की मूल विशेषताओं को नष्ट करने से रोकता है। III. इसे केशवानंद भारती मामले में स्थापित किया गया। उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Correct Answer: (3) Only II and III
The doctrine does not prohibit constitutional amendments altogether. It permits amendments but prevents Parliament from altering or destroying the Constitution's basic structure. The doctrine was propounded in Kesavananda Bharati.
49 Consider the following pairs: 1. 24th Amendment — Parliament's power to amend the Constitution 2. 42nd Amendment — Fundamental Duties 3. 44th Amendment — Restoration of certain democratic safeguards 4. 73rd Amendment — Panchayati Raj Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार कीजिए: 1. 24वाँ संशोधन — संविधान में संशोधन करने की संसद की शक्ति 2. 42वाँ संशोधन — मौलिक कर्तव्य 3. 44वाँ संशोधन — कुछ लोकतांत्रिक सुरक्षा उपायों की पुनर्स्थापना 4. 73वाँ संशोधन — पंचायती राज। उपर्युक्त में से कौन-से युग्म सही सुमेलित हैं?
Correct Answer: (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
All four pairs are correctly matched. The 24th Amendment affirmed Parliament's amending power, the 42nd added Fundamental Duties, the 44th reversed several Emergency-era changes and strengthened safeguards, and the 73rd constitutionalized Panchayati Raj.
50 Which of the following best explains the nature of the Indian Constitution's amendment procedure? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भारत के संविधान की संशोधन प्रक्रिया की प्रकृति को सबसे अच्छी तरह समझाता है?
Correct Answer: (4) It combines flexibility and rigidity through different amendment procedures
The Indian Constitution is neither completely rigid nor completely flexible. Some provisions can be changed by simple majority, most amendments require a special majority of Parliament, and important federal provisions require both a special parliamentary majority and ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. The basic structure doctrine further limits the amending power.
1 Which of the following statements correctly describes the constitutional position regarding amendment of the Constitution of India?
Correct Answer: (3) Different provisions of the Constitution can be amended through different procedures, including simple majority, special majority, and special majority plus ratification by at least half of the States.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Constitution does not provide for a general referendum procedure for constitutional amendments.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Many provisions require a special majority, and some also require State ratification.
- Statement 3 (✅) - India's amendment procedure is a combination of rigidity and flexibility.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Ratification by all States is not required; where ratification is prescribed, at least half of the States must approve.
2 Article 368 of the Constitution primarily deals with which of the following?
Correct Answer: (4) Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure therefor
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Emergency provisions are mainly contained in Part XVIII.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The election of the President is dealt with mainly under Articles 54 and 55.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Distribution of legislative powers is dealt with primarily in Part XI and the Seventh Schedule.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Article 368 lays down Parliament's constituent power and the procedure for constitutional amendment.
3 Consider the following statements regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It may be introduced in either House of Parliament and does not require prior permission of the President for introduction.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - A Constitutional Amendment Bill may originate in either House.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Prior Presidential recommendation is not required for introduction of a Bill under Article 368.
- Statement 3 (❌) - It may be introduced by either a Minister or a private member.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Either House can initiate the amendment process.
4 Which of the following is NOT required for passage of a Constitutional Amendment Bill under the special-majority procedure?
Correct Answer: (4) Approval by at least two-thirds of all State Legislatures
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - A special majority requires a majority of the total membership of the House.
- Statement 2 (✅) - It also requires two-thirds of members present and voting.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Both Houses must independently pass the Bill; there is no joint sitting.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Where State ratification is required, approval by at least half of the State Legislatures is sufficient.
5 Consider the following statements about the role of the Rajya Sabha in constitutional amendment. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) A Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed separately by both Houses; there is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Rajya Sabha has an essential role in constitutional amendments.
- Statement 2 (❌) - There is no mechanism by which the Lok Sabha can override the Rajya Sabha on an amendment Bill.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Both Houses must independently pass the Bill, and Article 108 joint sitting does not apply to constitutional amendment Bills.
- Statement 4 (❌) - A Bill can be introduced in either House.
6 Which of the following matters can be amended by Parliament by a simple majority and is therefore outside the procedure of Article 368?
Correct Answer: (4) Admission or establishment of new States under Article 2
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Fundamental Rights are generally amended through the Article 368 procedure, subject to basic structure limitations.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Provisions relating to Presidential election fall within the special ratification procedure.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Distribution of legislative powers requires the Article 368 procedure with State ratification.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Laws under Articles 2 and 3 are not treated as constitutional amendments for Article 368 purposes.
7 Which of the following requires ratification by at least one-half of the State Legislatures in addition to the special majority in Parliament?
Correct Answer: (2) Election of the President and its manner
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Changes under Article 3 are made through ordinary legislation and are not constitutional amendments under Article 368.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Changes to Articles 54 and 55 require special majority plus ratification by at least half the States.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Article 2 legislation follows the ordinary legislative procedure.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Article 169 provides a special legislative procedure and does not require Article 368 amendment.
8 Which of the following pairs of constitutional matters requires ratification by at least half of the States?
Correct Answer: (4) Distribution of legislative powers and representation of States in Parliament
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - These provisions generally follow the special-majority procedure without mandatory State ratification.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Citizenship and official language provisions do not generally require State ratification under Article 368.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Such matters do not fall within the specific ratification category.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Changes affecting the federal distribution of powers or State representation in Parliament require State ratification by at least half the States.
9 Consider the following statements regarding the President's role after Parliament passes a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Correct Answer: (4) The President shall give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill duly passed under Article 368.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 24th Amendment made Presidential assent mandatory for a duly passed Constitutional Amendment Bill.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The President does not have a veto power over a duly passed amendment Bill.
- Statement 3 (❌) - There is no such mandatory constitutional reference mechanism.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Article 368 requires the President to give assent after the Bill is duly passed.
10 Which Constitutional Amendment made it mandatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill?
Correct Answer: (4) 24th Amendment Act, 1971
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The First Amendment dealt with several issues including reasonable restrictions and Article 15(4).
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Seventh Amendment mainly reorganized States and related provisions.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 42nd Amendment made extensive changes but did not introduce this basic requirement.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 24th Amendment amended Article 368 and made Presidential assent mandatory.
11 Which of the following statements regarding a joint sitting of Parliament and Constitutional Amendment Bills is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) There is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve disagreement over a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Constitutional Amendment Bills are excluded from the joint-sitting mechanism.
- Statement 2 (❌) - No joint sitting can be used for this purpose.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Each House must separately pass the amendment Bill with the prescribed majority.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The President cannot use a joint sitting to overcome disagreement on an amendment Bill.
12 Which case is most closely associated with the Supreme Court's early view that Parliament's power to amend the Constitution extended even to Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: (3) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Golaknath later held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights using its then-understood Article 368 power.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Minerva Mills dealt significantly with limited amending power and harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Shankari Prasad upheld Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Kesavananda Bharati established the basic structure doctrine.
13 What was the principal constitutional significance of Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (1965)?
Correct Answer: (2) It upheld Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights, following the approach in Shankari Prasad.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The basic structure doctrine had not yet been formally established.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Sajjan Singh upheld the amending power over Fundamental Rights.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Article 368 was not declared unconstitutional.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Judicial review has much older constitutional and judicial roots.
14 Which of the following was the central holding in I.C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)?
Correct Answer: (4) Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under the constitutional position then prevailing, according to the majority decision.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Golaknath rejected the idea of unlimited amending power over Fundamental Rights.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The basic structure doctrine was established later in Kesavananda Bharati.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The case did not establish a Presidential veto over constitutional amendments.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The majority held that Fundamental Rights could not be amended under the then-understood constitutional scheme.
15 Which Constitutional Amendment was enacted in response to the Golaknath judgment and sought to affirm Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: (3) 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The First Amendment was enacted in 1951 for different constitutional purposes.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 24th Amendment and the amendment referred to are the same; the statement as written is incomplete without the Act's year but does not distinguish the correct full answer.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 24th Amendment expressly affirmed Parliament's constituent power and amended Articles 13 and 368.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 44th Amendment dealt mainly with post-Emergency constitutional changes and Fundamental Rights protections.
16 Which landmark judgment established the Basic Structure Doctrine?
Correct Answer: (4) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Golaknath dealt with Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights but did not establish the basic structure doctrine.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Minerva Mills strengthened and applied the basic structure doctrine.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Waman Rao dealt with the application of the basic structure doctrine to laws placed in the Ninth Schedule.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 1973 Kesavananda Bharati judgment established the Basic Structure Doctrine.
17 Consider the following statements about the Basic Structure Doctrine. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) It limits Parliament's amending power by preventing destruction of the Constitution's basic structure.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Constitution does not contain an express list titled "basic structure."
- Statement 2 (❌) - Parliament's amending power is limited by the basic structure doctrine.
- Statement 3 (✅) - This is the essence of the doctrine laid down in Kesavananda Bharati.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The doctrine specifically operates as a limitation on constitutional amendments.
18 Which of the following has NOT generally been recognized by the Supreme Court as an element of the basic structure?
Correct Answer: (4) Unlimited power of Parliament to amend every constitutional provision
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - Supremacy of the Constitution is recognized as part of the basic structure.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Judicial review is a recognized basic-structure feature.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Federalism is recognized as an important basic-structure feature.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Unlimited amending power itself is not part of the basic structure; the power is subject to limitations.
19 Which case is particularly important for holding that Parliament cannot use its amending power to destroy the basic balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
Correct Answer: (1) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - Minerva Mills held that limited amending power and harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are part of the constitutional basic structure.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Shankari Prasad upheld Parliament's broad amending power.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Sajjan Singh similarly upheld Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Berubari primarily concerned implementation of an agreement involving transfer of territory and the scope of constitutional amendment.
20 Which of the following statements regarding the 42nd Constitutional Amendment is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It added "Socialist", "Secular" and "Integrity" to the constitutional text and made several far-reaching changes.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 42nd Amendment was enacted in 1976.
- Statement 2 (❌) - It added these words to the Preamble.
- Statement 3 (❌) - It increased the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five to six years; the 44th Amendment restored five years.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 42nd Amendment is often called the "Mini-Constitution" because of its extensive changes.
21 Which of the following provisions was NOT inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: (3) Article 21A providing the Fundamental Right to Education
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - The 42nd Amendment inserted Part IVA containing Fundamental Duties.
- Statement 2 (✅) - It inserted "Socialist" and "Secular" into the Preamble.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Article 21A was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Article 39A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
22 Which Constitutional Amendment is known for restoring several democratic safeguards after the Emergency and reducing the scope of some changes made by the 42nd Amendment?
Correct Answer: (4) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 52nd Amendment introduced the anti-defection provisions.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 61st Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 73rd Amendment constitutionalized Panchayati Raj institutions.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 44th Amendment reversed several Emergency-era changes and strengthened civil-liberty safeguards.
23 Which of the following was introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?
Correct Answer: (2) Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Fundamental Duties were introduced by the 42nd Amendment.
- Statement 2 (✅) - The 73rd Amendment added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule concerning Panchayats.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Anti-defection provisions were introduced by the 52nd Amendment.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Constitutional status to the NCBC came through the 102nd Amendment.
24 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct Answer: (3) 74th Amendment — Constitutional status to Municipalities
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 73rd Amendment concerns Panchayats.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 61st Amendment lowered the voting age; the 52nd introduced the anti-defection law.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 74th Amendment added Part IXA and the Twelfth Schedule concerning Municipalities.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The anti-defection law came through the 52nd Amendment.
25 Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the Tenth Schedule containing provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection?
Correct Answer: (4) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 42nd Amendment made extensive constitutional changes but did not introduce the anti-defection law.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 44th Amendment dealt primarily with post-Emergency reforms.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 61st Amendment lowered the voting age to 18.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 52nd Amendment inserted the Tenth Schedule and introduced the anti-defection framework.
26 Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the minimum voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
Correct Answer: (1) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - The 61st Amendment amended Article 326 and lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 42nd Amendment did not lower the voting age.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 52nd Amendment introduced anti-defection provisions.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 73rd Amendment concerned Panchayats.
27 Which Constitutional Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution?
Correct Answer: (3) 73rd Amendment
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 42nd Amendment added the Eighth Schedule language changes? More precisely, it added provisions including Fundamental Duties and several Directive Principles, but not the Eleventh Schedule.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 subjects related to Panchayats.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 86th Amendment dealt primarily with the Right to Education and related provisions.
28 Which Constitutional Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule?
Correct Answer: (2) 74th Amendment
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 73rd Amendment added the Eleventh Schedule.
- Statement 2 (✅) - The 74th Amendment added the Twelfth Schedule with 18 subjects relating to Municipalities.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 86th Amendment inserted Article 21A.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 97th Amendment concerned cooperative societies.
29 Which of the following statements regarding the 86th Constitutional Amendment is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It inserted Article 21A, making education for children aged 6–14 years a Fundamental Right.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The anti-defection law was introduced by the 52nd Amendment.
- Statement 2 (❌) - EWS provisions were introduced by the 103rd Amendment.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Municipalities received constitutional status through the 74th Amendment.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 86th Amendment inserted Article 21A and modified Articles 45 and 51A.
30 Which Constitutional Amendment is associated with reservation in promotion for SCs and STs under Article 16(4A)?
Correct Answer: (3) 77th Amendment Act, 1995
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 81st Amendment inserted Article 16(4B) concerning carry-forward vacancies.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 82nd Amendment added a proviso to Article 335.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 77th Amendment inserted Article 16(4A) enabling reservation in promotions for SCs and STs.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 85th Amendment dealt with consequential seniority in promotions for SCs/STs under Article 16(4A).
31 Which Constitutional Amendment introduced Article 16(4B) relating to carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies?
Correct Answer: (2) 81st Amendment Act, 2000
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 77th Amendment inserted Article 16(4A).
- Statement 2 (✅) - The 81st Amendment inserted Article 16(4B) concerning carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 82nd Amendment amended Article 335.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 85th Amendment dealt with consequential seniority.
32 Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional recognition to cooperative societies by inserting Part IXB?
Correct Answer: (3) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 91st Amendment dealt with limits on ministries and anti-defection-related matters.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The option identifies the amendment number but does not give the complete answer requested; the correct answer is the 97th Amendment Act, 2011.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 97th Amendment inserted Part IXB concerning cooperative societies and amended Article 19 and Article 43B.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 102nd Amendment concerned the NCBC and SEBC framework.
33 Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on the 97th Constitutional Amendment is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) The Supreme Court invalidated the amendment insofar as it applied to State and multi-State cooperative societies without the required State ratification, while the amendment's effect on multi-State cooperatives was not invalidated on that ground.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The entire amendment was not struck down.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Court partially invalidated the amendment's application to State cooperative societies.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The Supreme Court's 2021 judgment in Union of India v. Rajendra N. Shah held that State ratification was required because of the federal implications.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Cooperative societies remain subject to constitutional and statutory regulation.
34 Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes as a separate commission?
Correct Answer: (4) 89th Amendment Act, 2003
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 73rd Amendment concerned Panchayats.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 86th Amendment concerned the Right to Education.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 91st Amendment concerned ministries and anti-defection-related provisions.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 89th Amendment bifurcated the earlier combined commission into the NCSC under Article 338 and NCST under Article 338A.
35 Which Constitutional Amendment inserted Articles 338B and 342A?
Correct Answer: (3) 102nd Amendment Act, 2018
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 89th Amendment dealt with the separate NCST.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 97th Amendment concerned cooperative societies.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 102nd Amendment inserted Article 338B concerning the NCBC and Article 342A concerning SEBCs.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 105th Amendment subsequently clarified the power of States and Union Territories concerning their own SEBC lists.
36 Which Constitutional Amendment introduced reservation for Economically Weaker Sections in education and public employment?
Correct Answer: (4) 103rd Amendment Act, 2019
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 101st Amendment introduced the GST constitutional framework.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 102nd Amendment gave constitutional status to the NCBC.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 105th Amendment concerned State/UT power regarding SEBC lists.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 103rd Amendment inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) for EWS provisions.
37 Consider the following statements regarding the 103rd Constitutional Amendment. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), enabling EWS reservation in educational institutions and public employment respectively.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The amendment concerns educational institutions and public employment, not private employment generally.
- Statement 2 (❌) - It inserted provisions in both Articles 15 and 16.
- Statement 3 (❌) - It did not introduce EWS reservation in Parliament.
- Statement 4 (✅) - This correctly identifies Articles 15(6) and 16(6) and their respective fields.
38 Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's judgment on the 103rd Amendment is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the 103rd Amendment by a 3:2 majority.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The amendment was upheld, not struck down.
- Statement 2 (❌) - EWS reservation is constitutionally distinct from SC/ST reservation.
- Statement 3 (✅) - In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2022), a 3:2 majority upheld the amendment.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The majority upheld both relevant constitutional provisions.
39 Which Constitutional Amendment is associated with reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
Correct Answer: (3) 106th Amendment Act, 2023
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 103rd Amendment concerns EWS reservation.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 105th Amendment concerns SEBC identification by States and UTs.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 106th Amendment introduced constitutional provisions for reservation of approximately one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and Delhi Legislative Assembly, subject to the constitutional implementation mechanism.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The 97th Amendment concerns cooperative societies.
40 Which of the following statements regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It provides for one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and the Delhi Legislative Assembly, with implementation linked to delimitation following the first census after commencement of the Amendment Act.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 106th Amendment does not provide women's reservation in the Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Existing SC/ST reservation is not abolished.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The amendment concerns Parliament and State/Delhi Legislative Assemblies, not merely local bodies.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The amendment inserted Articles 330A, 332A and 334A and links implementation to delimitation following the specified census.
41 Which of the following constitutional amendments is correctly matched with its principal subject?
Correct Answer: (4) 101st Amendment — Goods and Services Tax framework
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - EWS reservation was introduced by the 103rd Amendment.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 102nd Amendment gave constitutional status to the NCBC.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 103rd Amendment concerns EWS reservation.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 101st Amendment created the constitutional framework for GST.
42 Which of the following statements about the 44th Constitutional Amendment is correct?
Correct Answer: (2) It replaced the term "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" as a ground for proclaiming a National Emergency under Article 352.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The anti-defection law came through the 52nd Amendment.
- Statement 2 (✅) - The 44th Amendment strengthened safeguards concerning Emergency provisions and made this important change.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Fundamental Duties were introduced by the 42nd Amendment.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Panchayati Raj institutions received constitutional status through the 73rd Amendment.
43 Which of the following statements about the 24th Constitutional Amendment is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) It amended Articles 13 and 368 to affirm Parliament's constituent power to amend the Constitution and made Presidential assent mandatory.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The amendment sought to affirm Parliament's power rather than abolish it.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Basic Structure Doctrine was judicially established in Kesavananda Bharati.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 24th Amendment amended Articles 13 and 368 and made Presidential assent obligatory.
- Statement 4 (❌) - EWS reservation was introduced by the 103rd Amendment.
44 Which of the following statements about the 42nd Amendment's changes to Article 368 is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It attempted to make Parliament's amending power unlimited and sought to restrict judicial review, but the Supreme Court later invalidated key parts of these changes in Minerva Mills.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 42nd Amendment attempted such protection, but the Supreme Court rejected the attempt.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Article 368 was retained.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Parliament retained the constituent power; it was not transferred to the judiciary.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Minerva Mills invalidated clauses that sought to make the amending power unlimited and exclude judicial review.
45 Which of the following statements correctly describes the doctrine of basic structure in relation to Article 13?
Correct Answer: (2) The Supreme Court has treated a constitutional amendment differently from an ordinary law for Article 13 purposes, while independently subjecting constitutional amendments to the basic structure limitation under Article 368.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Basic Structure Doctrine is a judicial doctrine, not expressly written in Article 13.
- Statement 2 (✅) - The doctrinal development distinguishes ordinary legislation from constitutional amendments while imposing the basic structure limitation on amendments.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Article 13 does not categorically prohibit constitutional amendments.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Parliament's amending power is subject to constitutional limitations.
46 Which of the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule and constitutional amendments is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) In I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu, the Supreme Court held that laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can be tested against the basic structure doctrine.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Ninth Schedule laws are not completely immune from judicial review.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Ninth Schedule was inserted by the First Constitutional Amendment, 1951.
- Statement 3 (✅) - I.R. Coelho applied the basic structure test to post-Kesavananda additions to the Ninth Schedule.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Inclusion in the Ninth Schedule does not automatically make a law unconstitutional.
47 Consider the following statements about constitutional amendment and federalism. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) State ratification is required only for specified federal and related constitutional provisions, and ratification by at least half of the States is sufficient.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Most amendments do not require State ratification.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Parliament has the primary constitutional amending power under Article 368.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Constitutional Amendment Bills can be introduced only in Parliament.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Article 368 specifies certain matters for which ratification by at least half of the States is required.
48 Which of the following pairs correctly identifies constitutional amendments associated with the Preamble?
Correct Answer: (3) 42nd Amendment — inserted "Socialist", "Secular" and "Integrity"
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 42nd Amendment added, rather than removed, these words.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 44th Amendment did not insert these words.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The 42nd Amendment changed the description of India and added "Socialist", "Secular" and "Integrity."
- Statement 4 (❌) - The First Amendment did not make these changes to the Preamble.
49 Consider the following statements regarding the 106th Constitutional Amendment. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It inserted Article 330A for reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and Article 332A for reservation in State Legislative Assemblies.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 106th Amendment does not provide women's reservation in the Rajya Sabha.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Article 334A links implementation to delimitation following the specified census process.
- Statement 3 (❌) - It covers both the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, as well as the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Articles 330A and 332A were inserted for women's reservation in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies respectively.
50 Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional amendment process in India. Which of the following combinations is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) Parliament has constituent power under Article 368, but that power is subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine; both Houses must separately pass an amendment Bill, and specified federal provisions additionally require ratification by at least half of the States.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Kesavananda Bharati and subsequent cases established that Parliament's amending power is subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine and judicial review.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Constitutional Amendment Bills cannot be resolved through a joint sitting.
- Statement 3 (❌) - State ratification is required only for specified constitutional provisions, not every amendment.
- Statement 4 (✅) - This accurately summarizes the core constitutional amendment framework under Article 368 and the Basic Structure Doctrine.
1 Match the Following:
- Article 368
- Article 13
- Article 4
- Article 169
- Constitutional amendment procedure
- Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
- Formation of States and alteration of areas
- Abolition or creation of State Legislative Councils
- Election of the President
- Article 368
- Article 13
- Article 4
- Article 169
- Constitutional amendment procedure
- Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
- Formation of States and alteration of areas
- Abolition or creation of State Legislative Councils
- Election of the President
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | B | A | D | C |
| (C) | A | C | B | D |
| (D) | A | B | C | D |
Correct Answer: (D) A-B-C-D
- Article 368 - A - Constitutional amendment procedure is primarily governed by Article 368.
- Article 13 - B - Article 13 deals with laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights.
- Article 4 - C - Articles 2 and 3 related laws may amend the First and Fourth Schedules under Article 4.
- Article 169 - D - Article 169 provides for creation or abolition of State Legislative Councils.
2 Match the Following:
- First Amendment Act, 1951
- Twenty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1971
- Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976
- Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
- Added Fundamental Duties
- Restored several democratic safeguards
- Introduced reasonable restrictions and Ninth Schedule protection
- Affirmed Parliament's power to amend the Constitution
- Lowered voting age to 18 years
- First Amendment Act, 1951
- Twenty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1971
- Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976
- Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
- Added Fundamental Duties
- Restored several democratic safeguards
- Introduced reasonable restrictions and Ninth Schedule protection
- Affirmed Parliament's power to amend the Constitution
- Lowered voting age to 18 years
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | D | A | B |
| (B) | D | C | B | A |
| (C) | C | D | A | B |
| (D) | B | A | D | C |
Correct Answer: (C) C-D-A-B
- First Amendment Act, 1951 - C - It introduced the Ninth Schedule and expanded reasonable restrictions on certain Fundamental Rights.
- Twenty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1971 - D - It expressly affirmed Parliament's power to amend the Constitution.
- Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976 - A - It inserted Fundamental Duties through Part IVA.
- Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978 - B - It reversed several Emergency-era changes and strengthened safeguards.
3 Match the Following:
- Seventh Amendment
- Twenty-Sixth Amendment
- Sixty-First Amendment
- Seventy-Third Amendment
- Abolition of privy purses
- Reduction of voting age to 18
- Constitutional status to Panchayats
- Reorganisation of States and abolition of Part A/B/C/D classification
- Constitutional status to Municipalities
- Seventh Amendment
- Twenty-Sixth Amendment
- Sixty-First Amendment
- Seventy-Third Amendment
- Abolition of privy purses
- Reduction of voting age to 18
- Constitutional status to Panchayats
- Reorganisation of States and abolition of Part A/B/C/D classification
- Constitutional status to Municipalities
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | D | A | B | C |
| (C) | C | D | A | B |
| (D) | D | B | A | C |
Correct Answer: (B) D-A-B-C
- Seventh Amendment - D - It reorganised States and abolished the earlier Part A, B, C and D classification.
- Twenty-Sixth Amendment - A - It abolished privy purses and privileges of former rulers.
- Sixty-First Amendment - B - It reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
- Seventy-Third Amendment - C - It constitutionalised Panchayati Raj institutions.
4 Match the Following:
- Seventy-Fourth Amendment
- Eighty-Sixth Amendment
- One Hundred and First Amendment
- One Hundred and Third Amendment
- Right to Education
- Goods and Services Tax
- Economically Weaker Sections reservation
- Constitutional status to Municipalities
- Cooperative societies
- Seventy-Fourth Amendment
- Eighty-Sixth Amendment
- One Hundred and First Amendment
- One Hundred and Third Amendment
- Right to Education
- Goods and Services Tax
- Economically Weaker Sections reservation
- Constitutional status to Municipalities
- Cooperative societies
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | D | C | B | A |
| (D) | D | A | B | C |
Correct Answer: (D) D-A-B-C
- Seventy-Fourth Amendment - D - It gave constitutional status to urban local bodies.
- Eighty-Sixth Amendment - A - It inserted Article 21A providing the Right to Education.
- One Hundred and First Amendment - B - It introduced the constitutional framework for GST.
- One Hundred and Third Amendment - C - It enabled reservation for Economically Weaker Sections.
5 Match the Following:
- One Hundred and Fourth Amendment
- One Hundred and Fifth Amendment
- One Hundred and Sixth Amendment
- One Hundred and Second Amendment
- Restoration of States' power to identify SEBCs
- Extension of reservation for SCs/STs in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
- Women's reservation in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
- Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes
- GST Council
- One Hundred and Fourth Amendment
- One Hundred and Fifth Amendment
- One Hundred and Sixth Amendment
- One Hundred and Second Amendment
- Restoration of States' power to identify SEBCs
- Extension of reservation for SCs/STs in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
- Women's reservation in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
- Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes
- GST Council
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | A | C | D |
| (B) | B | A | C | D |
| (C) | D | B | A | C |
| (D) | C | D | B | A |
Correct Answer: (B) B-A-C-D
- One Hundred and Fourth Amendment - B - It extended SC/ST legislative reservation while ending Anglo-Indian nominated representation.
- One Hundred and Fifth Amendment - A - It restored States' authority to identify socially and educationally backward classes.
- One Hundred and Sixth Amendment - C - It provides for reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
- One Hundred and Second Amendment - D - It gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes.
6 Match the Following:
- Article 368(2)
- Simple majority
- Special majority
- Special majority plus State ratification
- Most provisions of the Constitution
- Specified federal provisions
- Amendments outside Article 368 procedure in certain cases
- Two-thirds of members present and voting plus majority of total membership
- Unanimous approval by States
- Article 368(2)
- Simple majority
- Special majority
- Special majority plus State ratification
- Most provisions of the Constitution
- Specified federal provisions
- Amendments outside Article 368 procedure in certain cases
- Two-thirds of members present and voting plus majority of total membership
- Unanimous approval by States
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | B | D | A | C |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (A) B-C-D-A
- Article 368(2) - B - It includes the special majority and, where required, State ratification procedure.
- Simple majority - C - Certain constitutional changes are made by ordinary legislative procedure and are not treated as amendments under Article 368.
- Special majority - D - It requires majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting.
- Special majority plus State ratification - A - It applies to specified federal provisions affecting Centre-State constitutional relations.
7 Match the Following:
- Basic Structure Doctrine
- Kesavananda Bharati case
- Minerva Mills case
- Golaknath case
- Parliament cannot destroy the Constitution's basic structure
- Limited amending power itself is a basic feature
- Fundamental Rights were held beyond Parliament's amending power at that time
- Judicial review by High Courts
- Doctrine of separation of powers
- Basic Structure Doctrine
- Kesavananda Bharati case
- Minerva Mills case
- Golaknath case
- Parliament cannot destroy the Constitution's basic structure
- Limited amending power itself is a basic feature
- Fundamental Rights were held beyond Parliament's amending power at that time
- Judicial review by High Courts
- Doctrine of separation of powers
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | C | B | D |
| (B) | A | A | B | C |
| (C) | B | A | D | C |
| (D) | A | B | C | D |
Correct Answer: (B) A-A-B-C
- Basic Structure Doctrine - A - It prevents Parliament from destroying the Constitution's basic structure through amendment.
- Kesavananda Bharati case - A - The Supreme Court propounded the basic structure doctrine in 1973.
- Minerva Mills case - B - The Court held limited amending power to be part of the basic structure.
- Golaknath case - C - The 1967 judgment held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under the then-prevailing interpretation.
8 Match the Following:
- Twenty-Fourth Amendment
- Twenty-Fifth Amendment
- Twenty-Ninth Amendment
- Forty-Second Amendment
- Inserted certain Kerala land reform laws into Ninth Schedule
- Introduced Article 31C originally for laws implementing certain Directive Principles
- Made President bound to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill
- Attempted to make Parliament's amending power unlimited
- Introduced anti-defection provisions
- Twenty-Fourth Amendment
- Twenty-Fifth Amendment
- Twenty-Ninth Amendment
- Forty-Second Amendment
- Inserted certain Kerala land reform laws into Ninth Schedule
- Introduced Article 31C originally for laws implementing certain Directive Principles
- Made President bound to give assent to a constitutional amendment bill
- Attempted to make Parliament's amending power unlimited
- Introduced anti-defection provisions
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | A | D |
| (B) | D | A | B | C |
| (C) | C | B | A | D |
| (D) | B | C | D | A |
Correct Answer: (C) C-B-A-D
- Twenty-Fourth Amendment - C - It made the President's assent to a duly passed constitutional amendment bill mandatory.
- Twenty-Fifth Amendment - B - It inserted Article 31C in its original form.
- Twenty-Ninth Amendment - A - It placed specified Kerala land reform laws in the Ninth Schedule.
- Forty-Second Amendment - D - It attempted to expand Parliament's amending power and restrict judicial review.
9 Match the Following:
- Forty-Fourth Amendment
- Fifty-Second Amendment
- Sixty-Ninth Amendment
- Seventy-Third Amendment
- Anti-defection law
- Delhi as National Capital Territory
- Panchayati Raj
- Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right
- Municipal governance
- Forty-Fourth Amendment
- Fifty-Second Amendment
- Sixty-Ninth Amendment
- Seventy-Third Amendment
- Anti-defection law
- Delhi as National Capital Territory
- Panchayati Raj
- Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right
- Municipal governance
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | D | B | A | C |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (A) D-A-B-C
- Forty-Fourth Amendment - D - It removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
- Fifty-Second Amendment - A - It introduced the Tenth Schedule containing the anti-defection law.
- Sixty-Ninth Amendment - B - It created the constitutional framework for Delhi as the National Capital Territory.
- Seventy-Third Amendment - C - It constitutionalised Panchayati Raj institutions.
10 Match the Following:
- Seventy-Third Amendment
- Seventy-Fourth Amendment
- Seventy-Seventh Amendment
- Eighty-First Amendment
- Reservation in promotion for SCs/STs
- Municipalities
- Carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies
- Panchayats
- Reservation for EWS
- Seventy-Third Amendment
- Seventy-Fourth Amendment
- Seventy-Seventh Amendment
- Eighty-First Amendment
- Reservation in promotion for SCs/STs
- Municipalities
- Carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies
- Panchayats
- Reservation for EWS
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | A | C |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | B | D | C | A |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B) D-B-A-C
- Seventy-Third Amendment - D - It established the constitutional framework for Panchayats.
- Seventy-Fourth Amendment - B - It established the constitutional framework for Municipalities.
- Seventy-Seventh Amendment - A - It enabled reservation in promotion for SCs and STs through Article 16(4A).
- Eighty-First Amendment - C - It enabled carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies through Article 16(4B).
11 Match the Following:
- Eighty-Second Amendment
- Eighty-Fifth Amendment
- Ninety-First Amendment
- Ninety-Third Amendment
- Consequential seniority in promotion
- Ceiling on size of Council of Ministers and anti-defection strengthening
- Relaxation of qualifying marks for SC/ST promotion
- Reservation in educational institutions for socially and educationally backward classes
- Cooperative societies
- Eighty-Second Amendment
- Eighty-Fifth Amendment
- Ninety-First Amendment
- Ninety-Third Amendment
- Consequential seniority in promotion
- Ceiling on size of Council of Ministers and anti-defection strengthening
- Relaxation of qualifying marks for SC/ST promotion
- Reservation in educational institutions for socially and educationally backward classes
- Cooperative societies
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | A | B | D |
| (B) | A | C | D | B |
| (C) | D | B | C | A |
| (D) | B | D | A | C |
Correct Answer: (A) C-A-B-D
- Eighty-Second Amendment - C - It enabled relaxation in qualifying marks and standards for SC/ST promotion.
- Eighty-Fifth Amendment - A - It provided consequential seniority in promotions for reserved categories.
- Ninety-First Amendment - B - It limited the size of the Council of Ministers and strengthened anti-defection provisions.
- Ninety-Third Amendment - D - It inserted Article 15(5) concerning reservation in educational institutions.
12 Match the Following:
- Ninety-Ninth Amendment
- One Hundredth Amendment
- One Hundred and First Amendment
- One Hundred and Second Amendment
- Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh
- GST
- National Commission for Backward Classes
- National Judicial Appointments Commission
- Finance Commission
- Ninety-Ninth Amendment
- One Hundredth Amendment
- One Hundred and First Amendment
- One Hundred and Second Amendment
- Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh
- GST
- National Commission for Backward Classes
- National Judicial Appointments Commission
- Finance Commission
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | D | A | B | C |
| (D) | B | D | A | C |
Correct Answer: (C) D-A-B-C
- Ninety-Ninth Amendment - D - It created the constitutional basis for the NJAC, which was later struck down by the Supreme Court.
- One Hundredth Amendment - A - It facilitated implementation of the India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement.
- One Hundred and First Amendment - B - It introduced GST into the constitutional framework.
- One Hundred and Second Amendment - C - It gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes.
13 Match the Following:
- One Hundred and Third Amendment
- One Hundred and Fourth Amendment
- One Hundred and Fifth Amendment
- One Hundred and Sixth Amendment
- Women's reservation
- EWS reservation
- Extension of SC/ST legislative reservation
- Restoration of State power over SEBC identification
- GST compensation mechanism
- One Hundred and Third Amendment
- One Hundred and Fourth Amendment
- One Hundred and Fifth Amendment
- One Hundred and Sixth Amendment
- Women's reservation
- EWS reservation
- Extension of SC/ST legislative reservation
- Restoration of State power over SEBC identification
- GST compensation mechanism
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | C | B | A | D |
| (C) | B | D | C | A |
| (D) | A | C | D | B |
Correct Answer: (A) B-C-D-A
- One Hundred and Third Amendment - B - It enabled reservation for Economically Weaker Sections.
- One Hundred and Fourth Amendment - C - It extended reservation for SCs and STs in legislatures.
- One Hundred and Fifth Amendment - D - It restored States' power to identify SEBCs for their own purposes.
- One Hundred and Sixth Amendment - A - It provides reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
14 Match the Following:
- First Schedule
- Fourth Schedule
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
- Allocation of Rajya Sabha seats to States and Union Territories
- States and Union Territories
- Administration of tribal areas in specified northeastern States
- Official languages
- First Schedule
- Fourth Schedule
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
- Allocation of Rajya Sabha seats to States and Union Territories
- States and Union Territories
- Administration of tribal areas in specified northeastern States
- Official languages
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | A | D |
| (B) | C | B | A | D |
| (C) | D | A | B | C |
| (D) | A | C | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B) C-B-A-D
- First Schedule - C - It contains the names and territorial extent of States and Union Territories.
- Fourth Schedule - B - It deals with allocation of seats in the Council of States.
- Fifth Schedule - A - It concerns administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
- Sixth Schedule - D - It provides special arrangements for tribal areas in specified northeastern States.
15 Match the Following:
- Tenth Schedule
- Eleventh Schedule
- Twelfth Schedule
- Ninth Schedule
- Municipal functions
- Anti-defection provisions
- Panchayat functions
- Certain laws originally protected from judicial review
- Languages
- Tenth Schedule
- Eleventh Schedule
- Twelfth Schedule
- Ninth Schedule
- Municipal functions
- Anti-defection provisions
- Panchayat functions
- Certain laws originally protected from judicial review
- Languages
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | A | D |
| (B) | C | B | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | C | B |
| (D) | A | D | B | C |
Correct Answer: (A) B-C-A-D
- Tenth Schedule - B - It contains the anti-defection provisions.
- Eleventh Schedule - C - It lists subjects for Panchayats.
- Twelfth Schedule - A - It lists subjects for Municipalities.
- Ninth Schedule - D - It was created to protect specified laws from certain forms of judicial review, subject to basic structure limitations.
16 Match the Following:
- Article 54
- Article 55
- Article 73
- Article 162
- Extent of executive power of State
- Election of President
- Extent of executive power of Union
- Manner of election of President
- Election of Vice-President
- Article 54
- Article 55
- Article 73
- Article 162
- Extent of executive power of State
- Election of President
- Extent of executive power of Union
- Manner of election of President
- Election of Vice-President
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | B | D | C | A |
| (C) | D | B | A | C |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B) B-D-C-A
- Article 54 - B - It deals with the election of the President.
- Article 55 - D - It prescribes the manner of election of the President.
- Article 73 - C - It defines the extent of the Union's executive power.
- Article 162 - A - It defines the extent of the State's executive power.
17 Match the Following:
- Articles 245-255
- Article 246
- Article 248
- Article 254
- Residuary legislative powers
- Inconsistency between Parliamentary and State laws
- Distribution of legislative subjects
- Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
- Procedure for constitutional amendment
- Articles 245-255
- Article 246
- Article 248
- Article 254
- Residuary legislative powers
- Inconsistency between Parliamentary and State laws
- Distribution of legislative subjects
- Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
- Procedure for constitutional amendment
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | C | A | B |
| (B) | C | D | B | A |
| (C) | A | C | D | B |
| (D) | B | A | C | D |
Correct Answer: (A) D-C-A-B
- Articles 245-255 - D - These provisions broadly deal with legislative relations between Union and States.
- Article 246 - C - It distributes legislative subjects among Union, State and Concurrent Lists.
- Article 248 - A - It gives Parliament residuary legislative powers.
- Article 254 - B - It deals with inconsistency between Parliamentary and State laws on Concurrent List matters.
18 Match the Following:
- Article 368 and Seventh Schedule
- Article 54 and 55
- Article 73 and 162
- Article 279A
- GST Council
- Distribution of executive powers
- Election of President
- Federal provisions requiring State ratification
- Finance Commission
- Article 368 and Seventh Schedule
- Article 54 and 55
- Article 73 and 162
- Article 279A
- GST Council
- Distribution of executive powers
- Election of President
- Federal provisions requiring State ratification
- Finance Commission
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | C | B | A |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | D | C | B | A |
| (D) | B | A | D | C |
Correct Answer: (C) D-C-B-A
- Article 368 and Seventh Schedule - D - Amendments affecting specified federal provisions require ratification by at least half of the States.
- Article 54 and 55 - C - These articles deal with the election of the President.
- Article 73 and 162 - B - They define the executive powers of the Union and States.
- Article 279A - A - It establishes the GST Council.
19 Match the Following:
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 52nd Amendment
- 61st Amendment
- Voting age reduced to 18
- Fundamental Duties
- Anti-defection law
- Right to Property made a constitutional legal right
- GST introduced
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 52nd Amendment
- 61st Amendment
- Voting age reduced to 18
- Fundamental Duties
- Anti-defection law
- Right to Property made a constitutional legal right
- GST introduced
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | B | D | C | A |
| (C) | C | B | A | D |
| (D) | A | C | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B) B-D-C-A
- 42nd Amendment - B - It inserted Fundamental Duties into the Constitution.
- 44th Amendment - D - It converted the Right to Property into a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.
- 52nd Amendment - C - It introduced the anti-defection law.
- 61st Amendment - A - It lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
20 Match the Following:
- 73rd Amendment
- 74th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- 97th Amendment
- Cooperative societies
- Municipalities
- Right to Education
- Panchayats
- Right to Information
- 73rd Amendment
- 74th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- 97th Amendment
- Cooperative societies
- Municipalities
- Right to Education
- Panchayats
- Right to Information
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | C | A |
| (B) | A | D | B | C |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | B | C | A | D |
Correct Answer: (A) D-B-C-A
- 73rd Amendment - D - It deals with Panchayats.
- 74th Amendment - B - It deals with Municipalities.
- 86th Amendment - C - It inserted Article 21A concerning the Right to Education.
- 97th Amendment - A - It inserted constitutional provisions concerning cooperative societies.
21 Match the Following:
- Golaknath v. State of Punjab
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
- Minerva Mills v. Union of India
- Basic structure doctrine formally established
- Free and fair elections recognised as basic structure feature
- Limited amending power and balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs
- Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights restricted by then-prevailing view
- Judicial appointments procedure
- Golaknath v. State of Punjab
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
- Minerva Mills v. Union of India
- Basic structure doctrine formally established
- Free and fair elections recognised as basic structure feature
- Limited amending power and balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs
- Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights restricted by then-prevailing view
- Judicial appointments procedure
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | D | A | B | C |
| (C) | A | B | C | D |
| (D) | C | D | A | B |
Correct Answer: (B) D-A-B-C
- Golaknath v. State of Punjab - D - The Court held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under its then interpretation.
- Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala - A - The landmark 1973 judgment established the basic structure doctrine.
- Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain - B - The judgment recognised free and fair elections as an element of the basic structure.
- Minerva Mills v. Union of India - C - It emphasised limited amending power and harmony between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs.
22 Match the Following:
- Waman Rao case
- I.R. Coelho case
- S.R. Bommai case
- NJAC case
- Ninth Schedule laws subject to basic structure review
- Federalism recognised as a basic structure feature
- Amendment creating NJAC struck down
- 24 April 1973 as significant date for Ninth Schedule review
- Right to Education
- Waman Rao case
- I.R. Coelho case
- S.R. Bommai case
- NJAC case
- Ninth Schedule laws subject to basic structure review
- Federalism recognised as a basic structure feature
- Amendment creating NJAC struck down
- 24 April 1973 as significant date for Ninth Schedule review
- Right to Education
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | C | B | D | A |
| (D) | B | C | A | D |
Correct Answer: (A) D-A-B-C
- Waman Rao case - D - It treated 24 April 1973 as a significant cut-off date for Ninth Schedule review.
- I.R. Coelho case - A - It held that Ninth Schedule laws inserted after the basic structure doctrine can be tested against it.
- S.R. Bommai case - B - It strongly affirmed federalism as a constitutional basic feature.
- NJAC case - C - The Supreme Court struck down the constitutional amendment establishing the NJAC.
23 Match the Following:
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- Article 21A
- Article 246A
- Article 300A
- Article 51A
- Article 243D
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- Article 21A
- Article 246A
- Article 300A
- Article 51A
- Article 243D
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | C | A | B |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | B | D | C | A |
Correct Answer: (C) D-C-A-B
- 42nd Amendment - D - It inserted Article 51A containing Fundamental Duties.
- 44th Amendment - C - It inserted Article 300A relating to the Right to Property.
- 86th Amendment - A - It inserted Article 21A.
- 101st Amendment - B - It inserted Article 246A for GST legislative powers.
24 Match the Following:
- Article 15(5)
- Article 16(4A)
- Article 16(4B)
- Article 16(6)
- EWS reservation in public employment
- Reservation in educational institutions
- Carry-forward of reserved vacancies
- Reservation in promotion for SCs/STs
- Reservation for women in legislatures
- Article 15(5)
- Article 16(4A)
- Article 16(4B)
- Article 16(6)
- EWS reservation in public employment
- Reservation in educational institutions
- Carry-forward of reserved vacancies
- Reservation in promotion for SCs/STs
- Reservation for women in legislatures
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | A | C | B | D |
Correct Answer: (A) B-D-C-A
- Article 15(5) - B - It enables special provisions including reservation in educational institutions for specified backward classes.
- Article 16(4A) - D - It enables reservation in promotion for SCs and STs.
- Article 16(4B) - C - It deals with carry-forward of unfilled reserved vacancies.
- Article 16(6) - A - It enables reservation in public employment for EWS.
25 Match the Following:
- Article 243D
- Article 243T
- Article 330A
- Article 332A
- Women's reservation in State Legislative Assemblies
- Reservation in Panchayats
- Women's reservation in Lok Sabha
- Reservation in Municipalities
- Women's reservation in Rajya Sabha
- Article 243D
- Article 243T
- Article 330A
- Article 332A
- Women's reservation in State Legislative Assemblies
- Reservation in Panchayats
- Women's reservation in Lok Sabha
- Reservation in Municipalities
- Women's reservation in Rajya Sabha
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | B | D | C | A |
| (C) | A | B | D | C |
| (D) | D | C | A | B |
Correct Answer: (B) B-D-C-A
- Article 243D - B - It provides reservation in Panchayats.
- Article 243T - D - It provides reservation in Municipalities.
- Article 330A - C - The 106th Amendment inserted provisions for women's reservation in the Lok Sabha.
- Article 332A - A - The 106th Amendment inserted provisions for women's reservation in State Legislative Assemblies.
26 Match the Following:
- Article 330
- Article 332
- Article 334
- Article 334A
- Reservation of SC/ST seats in State Assemblies
- Reservation of SC/ST seats in Lok Sabha
- Duration-related provision for legislative reservation
- Commencement and duration framework for women's reservation
- Reservation in Rajya Sabha
- Article 330
- Article 332
- Article 334
- Article 334A
- Reservation of SC/ST seats in State Assemblies
- Reservation of SC/ST seats in Lok Sabha
- Duration-related provision for legislative reservation
- Commencement and duration framework for women's reservation
- Reservation in Rajya Sabha
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | A | C | D |
| (B) | A | B | D | C |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | C | D | B | A |
Correct Answer: (A) B-A-C-D
- Article 330 - B - It provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha.
- Article 332 - A - It provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in State Legislative Assemblies.
- Article 334 - C - It deals with the duration of reservation and special representation provisions.
- Article 334A - D - It establishes the operative framework and duration of women's legislative reservation.
27 Match the Following:
- 1st Amendment
- 7th Amendment
- 26th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- Abolition of privy purses
- Reorganisation of States
- Ninth Schedule and expanded restrictions under Article 19
- Fundamental Duties and major constitutional changes
- Anti-defection law
- 1st Amendment
- 7th Amendment
- 26th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- Abolition of privy purses
- Reorganisation of States
- Ninth Schedule and expanded restrictions under Article 19
- Fundamental Duties and major constitutional changes
- Anti-defection law
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | A | D |
| (B) | D | A | B | C |
| (C) | C | B | A | D |
| (D) | A | C | D | B |
Correct Answer: (C) C-B-A-D
- 1st Amendment - C - It introduced the Ninth Schedule and expanded certain restrictions under Article 19.
- 7th Amendment - B - It implemented major changes connected with State reorganisation.
- 26th Amendment - A - It abolished privy purses and official recognition of former rulers.
- 42nd Amendment - D - It inserted Fundamental Duties and made extensive constitutional changes.
28 Match the Following:
- 52nd Amendment
- 73rd Amendment
- 74th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- Right to Education
- Urban local self-government
- Anti-defection
- Rural local self-government
- GST
- 52nd Amendment
- 73rd Amendment
- 74th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- Right to Education
- Urban local self-government
- Anti-defection
- Rural local self-government
- GST
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | D | B | A |
| (B) | D | C | A | B |
| (C) | B | A | D | C |
| (D) | A | B | C | D |
Correct Answer: (A) C-D-B-A
- 52nd Amendment - C - It introduced the anti-defection law through the Tenth Schedule.
- 73rd Amendment - D - It constitutionalised rural local self-government through Panchayats.
- 74th Amendment - B - It constitutionalised urban local self-government through Municipalities.
- 86th Amendment - A - It inserted Article 21A on the Right to Education.
29 Match the Following:
- 91st Amendment
- 93rd Amendment
- 97th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- Cooperative societies
- GST
- Limit on size of Council of Ministers
- Reservation in educational institutions
- EWS reservation
- 91st Amendment
- 93rd Amendment
- 97th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- Cooperative societies
- GST
- Limit on size of Council of Ministers
- Reservation in educational institutions
- EWS reservation
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | D | A | B |
| (B) | C | D | A | B |
| (C) | B | A | D | C |
| (D) | D | C | B | A |
Correct Answer: (B) C-D-A-B
- 91st Amendment - C - It limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the House.
- 93rd Amendment - D - It enabled special provisions for reservation in educational institutions.
- 97th Amendment - A - It inserted constitutional provisions concerning cooperative societies.
- 101st Amendment - B - It introduced the constitutional GST regime.
30 Match the Following:
- 102nd Amendment
- 103rd Amendment
- 104th Amendment
- 105th Amendment
- Extension of SC/ST legislative reservation
- State power to identify SEBCs restored
- NCBC constitutional status
- EWS reservation
- Women's reservation
- 102nd Amendment
- 103rd Amendment
- 104th Amendment
- 105th Amendment
- Extension of SC/ST legislative reservation
- State power to identify SEBCs restored
- NCBC constitutional status
- EWS reservation
- Women's reservation
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | D | A | B |
| (B) | D | C | B | A |
| (C) | A | B | C | D |
| (D) | B | A | D | C |
Correct Answer: (A) C-D-A-B
- 102nd Amendment - C - It gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes.
- 103rd Amendment - D - It enabled EWS reservation.
- 104th Amendment - A - It extended SC/ST legislative reservation while ending Anglo-Indian nominated representation.
- 105th Amendment - B - It restored States' power to identify SEBCs for their own purposes.
31 Match the Following:
- 106th Amendment
- 330A
- 332A
- 334A
- Reservation for women in State Assemblies
- Reservation for women in Lok Sabha
- Duration and commencement framework for women's reservation
- Constitutional amendment introducing women's legislative reservation
- Reservation for women in Rajya Sabha
- 106th Amendment
- 330A
- 332A
- 334A
- Reservation for women in State Assemblies
- Reservation for women in Lok Sabha
- Duration and commencement framework for women's reservation
- Constitutional amendment introducing women's legislative reservation
- Reservation for women in Rajya Sabha
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | A | C |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | A | C | B | D |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B) D-B-A-C
- 106th Amendment - D - It introduced constitutional provisions for women's reservation in legislatures.
- 330A - B - It provides for reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha.
- 332A - A - It provides for reservation of seats for women in State Legislative Assemblies.
- 334A - C - It provides the commencement and duration framework linked to delimitation and census.
32 Match the Following:
- Special majority
- State ratification
- Simple majority
- President's assent
- Mandatory after constitutional amendment bill is duly passed
- Used for specified federal provisions
- Used for certain provisions outside Article 368
- Core procedure for most amendments under Article 368
- Approval by Supreme Court
- Special majority
- State ratification
- Simple majority
- President's assent
- Mandatory after constitutional amendment bill is duly passed
- Used for specified federal provisions
- Used for certain provisions outside Article 368
- Core procedure for most amendments under Article 368
- Approval by Supreme Court
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | C | A |
| (B) | C | D | A | B |
| (C) | B | A | D | C |
| (D) | A | C | B | D |
Correct Answer: (A) D-B-C-A
- Special majority - D - Most amendments under Article 368 require this form of majority.
- State ratification - B - It is required for amendments affecting specified federal provisions.
- Simple majority - C - Some constitutional changes are made through ordinary legislative procedures.
- President's assent - A - After the Twenty-Fourth Amendment, the President must give assent to a duly passed constitutional amendment bill.
33 Match the Following:
- Change in representation of States in Parliament
- Change in powers of Supreme Court and High Courts
- Change in distribution of legislative powers
- Change in election of President
- State ratification required
- State ratification required
- State ratification required
- State ratification required
- Always simple majority
- Change in representation of States in Parliament
- Change in powers of Supreme Court and High Courts
- Change in distribution of legislative powers
- Change in election of President
- State ratification required
- State ratification required
- State ratification required
- State ratification required
- Always simple majority
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | A | A | A |
| (B) | A | A | A | A |
| (C) | A | B | C | D |
| (D) | B | C | D | A |
Correct Answer: (B) A-A-A-A
- Change in representation of States in Parliament - A - Such federal provisions require ratification by at least half of the States.
- Change in powers of Supreme Court and High Courts - A - Amendments affecting these federal judicial provisions require State ratification.
- Change in distribution of legislative powers - A - The federal distribution of legislative powers is among the provisions requiring ratification.
- Change in election of President - A - The constitutional provisions governing presidential election are among those requiring State ratification.
34 Match the Following:
- Parliamentary sovereignty
- Judicial review
- Rule of law
- Secularism
- Basic structure feature
- Basic structure feature
- Basic structure feature
- Basic structure feature
- Unlimited amending power
- Parliamentary sovereignty
- Judicial review
- Rule of law
- Secularism
- Basic structure feature
- Basic structure feature
- Basic structure feature
- Basic structure feature
- Unlimited amending power
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | E | A | B | C |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | E | A | B | D |
| (D) | D | C | A | B |
Correct Answer: (C) E-A-B-D
- Parliamentary sovereignty - E - Unlimited amending power of Parliament is not a basic structure feature in India.
- Judicial review - A - Judicial review is recognised as part of the Constitution's basic structure.
- Rule of law - B - Rule of law is a recognised basic structural principle.
- Secularism - D - Secularism is an established element of the basic structure.
35 Match the Following:
- Basic structure
- Constitutional supremacy
- Federalism
- Republicanism
- India is a Union with constitutional division of powers
- Constitution remains supreme over ordinary law
- Head of State is elected, not hereditary
- Core features cannot be destroyed by amendment
- Parliament can override the Constitution
- Basic structure
- Constitutional supremacy
- Federalism
- Republicanism
- India is a Union with constitutional division of powers
- Constitution remains supreme over ordinary law
- Head of State is elected, not hereditary
- Core features cannot be destroyed by amendment
- Parliament can override the Constitution
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | A | C |
| (B) | B | D | C | A |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | A | C | B | D |
Correct Answer: (A) D-B-A-C
- Basic structure - D - It protects fundamental constitutional features from destructive amendments.
- Constitutional supremacy - B - The Constitution is the supreme law of India.
- Federalism - A - Federalism involves constitutional distribution of powers between Union and States.
- Republicanism - C - India has an elected head of State rather than a hereditary monarch.
36 Match the Following:
- Article 368(1)
- Article 368(2)
- Article 368(3)
- Article 368(4)
- Attempt to exclude constitutional amendments from judicial review
- Constitutional power and procedure of amendment
- Special majority and State ratification procedure
- Attempted exclusion of judicial review, later invalidated
- Simple majority for all amendments
- Article 368(1)
- Article 368(2)
- Article 368(3)
- Article 368(4)
- Attempt to exclude constitutional amendments from judicial review
- Constitutional power and procedure of amendment
- Special majority and State ratification procedure
- Attempted exclusion of judicial review, later invalidated
- Simple majority for all amendments
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | B | C | D | A |
| (C) | D | B | A | C |
| (D) | A | D | C | B |
Correct Answer: (B) B-C-D-A
- Article 368(1) - B - It recognises Parliament's constituent power to amend the Constitution.
- Article 368(2) - C - It lays down the principal amendment procedure including special majority and, where applicable, State ratification.
- Article 368(3) - D - It states that Article 13 does not apply to constitutional amendments made under Article 368.
- Article 368(4) - A - The Forty-Second Amendment's attempt to bar judicial review of amendments was later invalidated.
37 Match the Following:
- 24th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 99th Amendment
- NJAC framework
- President's assent made mandatory
- Emergency-era changes substantially modified
- Extensive attempt to strengthen Parliament's position
- Voting age reduced
- 24th Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 99th Amendment
- NJAC framework
- President's assent made mandatory
- Emergency-era changes substantially modified
- Extensive attempt to strengthen Parliament's position
- Voting age reduced
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | A | C | D | B |
| (D) | C | A | B | D |
Correct Answer: (A) B-D-C-A
- 24th Amendment - B - It made Presidential assent to a constitutional amendment bill mandatory.
- 42nd Amendment - D - It made extensive changes intended to strengthen the central and Parliamentary position.
- 44th Amendment - C - It reversed several Emergency-era constitutional changes.
- 99th Amendment - A - It created the constitutional framework for the NJAC.
38 Match the Following:
- 25th Amendment
- 31st Amendment
- 36th Amendment
- 52nd Amendment
- Sikkim became a full State of India
- Anti-defection law
- Changed Lok Sabha representation and related provisions
- Article 31C introduced in original form
- Delhi special status
- 25th Amendment
- 31st Amendment
- 36th Amendment
- 52nd Amendment
- Sikkim became a full State of India
- Anti-defection law
- Changed Lok Sabha representation and related provisions
- Article 31C introduced in original form
- Delhi special status
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | C | A | B |
| (B) | C | D | B | A |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | A | B | D | C |
Correct Answer: (C) D-C-A-B
- 25th Amendment - D - It inserted Article 31C in its original form.
- 31st Amendment - C - It altered representation-related provisions for the Lok Sabha.
- 36th Amendment - A - It made Sikkim a full-fledged State of India.
- 52nd Amendment - B - It introduced the anti-defection law.
39 Match the Following:
- 69th Amendment
- 71st Amendment
- 73rd Amendment
- 74th Amendment
- Four languages added to Eighth Schedule
- Delhi National Capital Territory
- Municipalities
- Panchayats
- Cooperative societies
- 69th Amendment
- 71st Amendment
- 73rd Amendment
- 74th Amendment
- Four languages added to Eighth Schedule
- Delhi National Capital Territory
- Municipalities
- Panchayats
- Cooperative societies
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | A | D | C |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | D | C | B | A |
| (D) | C | D | A | B |
Correct Answer: (A) B-A-D-C
- 69th Amendment - B - It provided the constitutional framework for Delhi as the National Capital Territory.
- 71st Amendment - A - It added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali to the Eighth Schedule.
- 73rd Amendment - D - It constitutionalised Panchayats.
- 74th Amendment - C - It constitutionalised Municipalities.
40 Match the Following:
- 87th Amendment
- 89th Amendment
- 91st Amendment
- 92nd Amendment
- Four languages added to Eighth Schedule
- Separate National Commission for STs
- Readjustment of seats based on 2001 Census without altering total seats
- Limits on Council of Ministers and anti-defection provisions
- Right to Education
- 87th Amendment
- 89th Amendment
- 91st Amendment
- 92nd Amendment
- Four languages added to Eighth Schedule
- Separate National Commission for STs
- Readjustment of seats based on 2001 Census without altering total seats
- Limits on Council of Ministers and anti-defection provisions
- Right to Education
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | D | A |
| (B) | C | B | D | A |
| (C) | A | D | C | B |
| (D) | D | A | B | C |
Correct Answer: (B) C-B-D-A
- 87th Amendment - C - It enabled readjustment based on the 2001 Census without changing the total number of seats.
- 89th Amendment - B - It provided for a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
- 91st Amendment - D - It limited the size of the Council of Ministers and strengthened anti-defection provisions.
- 92nd Amendment - A - It added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule.
41 Match the Following:
- 95th Amendment
- 96th Amendment
- 97th Amendment
- 98th Amendment
- Cooperative societies
- Reservation period for SC/ST legislative seats extended
- Telugu replaced by Telugu and related language terminology change from Oriya to Odia
- Special provision relating to Karnataka's Hyderabad-Karnataka region
- GST Council
- 95th Amendment
- 96th Amendment
- 97th Amendment
- 98th Amendment
- Cooperative societies
- Reservation period for SC/ST legislative seats extended
- Telugu replaced by Telugu and related language terminology change from Oriya to Odia
- Special provision relating to Karnataka's Hyderabad-Karnataka region
- GST Council
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | A | D |
| (B) | C | B | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | C | B |
| (D) | A | D | B | C |
Correct Answer: (A) B-C-A-D
- 95th Amendment - B - It extended reservation of seats for SCs and STs in legislatures.
- 96th Amendment - C - It changed the constitutional terminology from Oriya to Odia.
- 97th Amendment - A - It introduced constitutional provisions relating to cooperative societies.
- 98th Amendment - D - It inserted Article 371J relating to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
42 Match the Following:
- 100th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- 102nd Amendment
- 103rd Amendment
- EWS reservation
- Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh
- NCBC constitutional status
- GST
- Women's reservation
- 100th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- 102nd Amendment
- 103rd Amendment
- EWS reservation
- Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh
- NCBC constitutional status
- GST
- Women's reservation
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | B | D | C | A |
| (C) | D | B | A | C |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B) B-D-C-A
- 100th Amendment - B - It implemented the India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement framework.
- 101st Amendment - D - It introduced GST into the constitutional scheme.
- 102nd Amendment - C - It gave constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes.
- 103rd Amendment - A - It enabled reservation for Economically Weaker Sections.
43 Match the Following:
- 104th Amendment
- 105th Amendment
- 106th Amendment
- Constitutional amendment concerning GST
- State power to identify SEBCs
- Women's legislative reservation
- GST framework
- Extension of SC/ST legislative reservation
- Right to Education
- 104th Amendment
- 105th Amendment
- 106th Amendment
- Constitutional amendment concerning GST
- State power to identify SEBCs
- Women's legislative reservation
- GST framework
- Extension of SC/ST legislative reservation
- Right to Education
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | C | B | D | A |
| (D) | B | C | A | D |
Correct Answer: (A) D-A-B-C
- 104th Amendment - D - It extended reservation for SCs and STs in legislative bodies.
- 105th Amendment - A - It restored States' power to identify SEBCs.
- 106th Amendment - B - It introduced women's reservation in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
- Constitutional amendment concerning GST - C - The 101st Amendment created the constitutional GST framework.
44 Match the Following:
- Article 368
- Article 4
- Article 169
- Article 170
- Composition of State Legislative Assemblies
- Creation or abolition of State Legislative Councils
- Constitutional amendment procedure
- Consequential changes in Schedules following State reorganisation
- Emergency provisions
- Article 368
- Article 4
- Article 169
- Article 170
- Composition of State Legislative Assemblies
- Creation or abolition of State Legislative Councils
- Constitutional amendment procedure
- Consequential changes in Schedules following State reorganisation
- Emergency provisions
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | D | B | A |
| (B) | C | D | B | A |
| (C) | A | B | D | C |
| (D) | D | C | A | B |
Correct Answer: (B) C-D-B-A
- Article 368 - C - It provides the principal constitutional amendment procedure.
- Article 4 - D - It permits consequential amendments to specified Schedules in laws under Articles 2 and 3.
- Article 169 - B - It deals with creation or abolition of State Legislative Councils.
- Article 170 - A - It concerns composition of State Legislative Assemblies.
45 Match the Following:
- Article 15(5)
- Article 15(6)
- Article 16(4A)
- Article 16(6)
- EWS reservation in public employment
- Reservation for SC/ST in promotion
- EWS reservation in educational institutions
- Special provisions for certain educational institutions
- Reservation in Parliament
- Article 15(5)
- Article 15(6)
- Article 16(4A)
- Article 16(6)
- EWS reservation in public employment
- Reservation for SC/ST in promotion
- EWS reservation in educational institutions
- Special provisions for certain educational institutions
- Reservation in Parliament
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | C | B | A |
| (B) | C | D | A | B |
| (C) | B | A | D | C |
| (D) | A | B | C | D |
Correct Answer: (A) D-C-B-A
- Article 15(5) - D - It enables special provisions for admission to educational institutions for specified backward classes.
- Article 15(6) - C - It enables EWS reservation in educational institutions.
- Article 16(4A) - B - It enables reservation in promotion for SCs and STs.
- Article 16(6) - A - It enables EWS reservation in public employment.
46 Match the Following:
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- Article 21A
- Article 300A
- Article 246A and GST provisions
- Article 51A and Fundamental Duties
- Article 243G
- 42nd Amendment
- 44th Amendment
- 86th Amendment
- 101st Amendment
- Article 21A
- Article 300A
- Article 246A and GST provisions
- Article 51A and Fundamental Duties
- Article 243G
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | A | C |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | C | A | B | D |
| (D) | A | C | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B) D-B-A-C
- 42nd Amendment - D - It inserted Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
- 44th Amendment - B - It introduced Article 300A concerning the Right to Property.
- 86th Amendment - A - It inserted Article 21A providing the Right to Education.
- 101st Amendment - C - It inserted Article 246A and other provisions establishing the GST framework.
47 Match the Following:
- Basic structure doctrine
- Judicial review
- Federalism
- Secularism
- Part of basic structure
- Part of basic structure
- Part of basic structure
- Part of basic structure
- Can be completely abolished by ordinary law
- Basic structure doctrine
- Judicial review
- Federalism
- Secularism
- Part of basic structure
- Part of basic structure
- Part of basic structure
- Part of basic structure
- Can be completely abolished by ordinary law
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | D | A | B | C |
| (C) | B | C | D | A |
| (D) | C | D | A | B |
Correct Answer: (A) A-B-C-D
- Basic structure doctrine - A - It protects the Constitution's essential features from destructive amendment.
- Judicial review - B - Judicial review is a recognised component of the basic structure.
- Federalism - C - Federalism has been recognised as a basic feature of the Constitution.
- Secularism - D - Secularism is also recognised as a basic structure feature.
48 Match the Following:
- Minerva Mills judgment
- Waman Rao judgment
- I.R. Coelho judgment
- NJAC judgment
- Ninth Schedule review based on basic structure
- Limited amending power and FR-DPSP balance
- Basic structure review of post-1973 Ninth Schedule insertions
- Judicial appointments amendment struck down
- Voting age reduction
- Minerva Mills judgment
- Waman Rao judgment
- I.R. Coelho judgment
- NJAC judgment
- Ninth Schedule review based on basic structure
- Limited amending power and FR-DPSP balance
- Basic structure review of post-1973 Ninth Schedule insertions
- Judicial appointments amendment struck down
- Voting age reduction
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | A | C | D |
| (B) | B | A | C | D |
| (C) | C | B | D | A |
| (D) | D | C | A | B |
Correct Answer: (B) B-A-C-D
- Minerva Mills judgment - B - It emphasised limited amending power and harmony between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs.
- Waman Rao judgment - A - It dealt with Ninth Schedule laws and the basic structure doctrine with reference to the 24 April 1973 cut-off.
- I.R. Coelho judgment - C - It subjected post-1973 Ninth Schedule insertions to basic structure scrutiny.
- NJAC judgment - D - The Supreme Court invalidated the constitutional amendment establishing the NJAC.
49 Match the Following:
- Constitutional amendment bill in Lok Sabha
- Constitutional amendment bill in Rajya Sabha
- Joint sitting
- President's assent
- Not applicable to constitutional amendment bills
- May originate in either House
- Mandatory after duly passed amendment bill
- Required passage by prescribed majority in both Houses
- Can be introduced only by the President
- Constitutional amendment bill in Lok Sabha
- Constitutional amendment bill in Rajya Sabha
- Joint sitting
- President's assent
- Not applicable to constitutional amendment bills
- May originate in either House
- Mandatory after duly passed amendment bill
- Required passage by prescribed majority in both Houses
- Can be introduced only by the President
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | A | C |
| (B) | D | B | C | A |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | A | C | B | D |
Correct Answer: (A) B-D-A-C
- Constitutional amendment bill in Lok Sabha - B - A constitutional amendment bill may originate in either House of Parliament.
- Constitutional amendment bill in Rajya Sabha - D - It requires passage by the constitutionally prescribed majority in both Houses.
- Joint sitting - A - The Constitution does not provide a joint sitting for constitutional amendment bills.
- President's assent - C - After the Twenty-Fourth Amendment, assent is mandatory once the bill is duly passed.
50 Match the Following:
- Constitutional amendment requiring State ratification
- Constitutional amendment requiring special majority only
- Constitutional change by simple majority
- Basic structure limitation
- Cannot destroy essential features of Constitution
- Change in representation of States in Parliament
- Most provisions amended under Article 368
- Formation or alteration of States under Articles 2 and 3
- Amendment of every constitutional provision
- Constitutional amendment requiring State ratification
- Constitutional amendment requiring special majority only
- Constitutional change by simple majority
- Basic structure limitation
- Cannot destroy essential features of Constitution
- Change in representation of States in Parliament
- Most provisions amended under Article 368
- Formation or alteration of States under Articles 2 and 3
- Amendment of every constitutional provision
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | D | B | C | A |
| (C) | B | C | D | A |
| (D) | A | D | B | C |
Correct Answer: (C) B-C-D-A
- Constitutional amendment requiring State ratification - B - Changes affecting representation of States in Parliament require ratification by at least half of the States.
- Constitutional amendment requiring special majority only - C - Most provisions under Article 368 are amended through the special majority of Parliament without State ratification.
- Constitutional change by simple majority - D - Changes under Articles 2 and 3 are not treated as amendments under Article 368.
- Basic structure limitation - A - Parliament cannot use its amending power to destroy the Constitution's basic structure.
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