Polity Chapter 32 MCQs - Political Parties (राजनीतिक दल)
1 Which Article of the Constitution specifically recognizes the right to form associations or unions, which includes the formation of political parties? संविधान का कौन-सा अनुच्छेद राजनीतिक दलों के गठन सहित संघ या संगठन बनाने के अधिकार को मान्यता देता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Article 19(1)(c)
Article 19(1)(c) guarantees citizens the right to form associations or unions. Political parties are voluntary associations formed to participate in the political process. This right is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(4).
2 Which authority is responsible for the registration of political parties in India? भारत में राजनीतिक दलों के पंजीकरण के लिए कौन-सा प्राधिकरण जिम्मेदार है?
Correct Answer: (4) Election Commission of India
Under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, political parties seeking registration are required to apply to the Election Commission of India.
3 Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 primarily deals with: जन प्रतिनिधित्व अधिनियम, 1951 की धारा 29A मुख्यतः किससे संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Registration of political parties
Section 29A provides the statutory framework for registration of political parties with the Election Commission of India. It specifies the procedure and conditions for such registration.
4 A political party seeking registration under Section 29A must submit its application to the Election Commission within what period from its formation? धारा 29A के तहत पंजीकरण चाहने वाले राजनीतिक दल को अपने गठन के कितने समय के भीतर निर्वाचन आयोग को आवेदन देना होता है?
Correct Answer: (3) 30 days from the date of its formation
Section 29A requires an association or body seeking registration as a political party to make an application to the Election Commission within 30 days of its formation.
5 Which of the following is a mandatory feature of the memorandum or rules of a political party seeking registration under Section 29A? धारा 29A के तहत पंजीकरण चाहने वाले राजनीतिक दल के ज्ञापन या नियमों की कौन-सी विशेषता अनिवार्य है?
Correct Answer: (4) It must bear allegiance to the Constitution of India and the principles of socialism, secularism and democracy
Section 29A requires the party's memorandum or rules to contain an express provision that the association shall bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India and to the principles of socialism, secularism and democracy, and uphold the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
6 Which institution has the power to recognize a political party as a national party or state party? किस संस्था को किसी राजनीतिक दल को राष्ट्रीय दल या राज्य दल के रूप में मान्यता देने की शक्ति है?
Correct Answer: (4) Election Commission of India
The Election Commission of India determines whether a political party qualifies as a recognized State Party or National Party under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
7 Which of the following is NOT a criterion for recognition of a political party as a State Party under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा निर्वाचन प्रतीक (आरक्षण एवं आवंटन) आदेश, 1968 के तहत किसी राजनीतिक दल को राज्य दल के रूप में मान्यता देने का मानदंड नहीं है?
Correct Answer: (4) Winning at least one-third of all seats in the State Legislative Council
The Election Commission's recognition criteria are primarily based on votes and seats won in Lok Sabha or State Assembly elections. Winning one-third of the seats in a Legislative Council is not a criterion for State Party recognition.
8 A political party can be recognized as a State Party if it secures at least what percentage of valid votes polled in a State and wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly? यदि कोई राजनीतिक दल किसी राज्य में डाले गए वैध मतों का कम-से-कम कितना प्रतिशत प्राप्त करता है और विधानसभा में कम-से-कम दो सीटें जीतता है, तो उसे राज्य दल के रूप में मान्यता मिल सकती है?
Correct Answer: (2) 6%
One route to State Party recognition is securing at least 6% of the valid votes polled in the State in a general election to the Legislative Assembly and winning at least two seats in that Assembly.
9 Under another criterion for State Party recognition, a political party must win at least how many seats in the Legislative Assembly for every 25 seats or fraction thereof allotted to the State in the Lok Sabha? राज्य दल की मान्यता के एक अन्य मानदंड के अनुसार, लोकसभा में राज्य को आवंटित प्रत्येक 25 सीटों या उसके अंश के लिए राजनीतिक दल को विधानसभा में कम-से-कम कितनी सीटें जीतनी होती हैं?
Correct Answer: (2) Three seats
One of the State Party recognition routes requires the party to win at least three seats in the Legislative Assembly or at least 3% of the total seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.
10 Which of the following is one of the routes for recognition as a State Party? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राज्य दल के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त करने का एक मार्ग है?
Correct Answer: (3) Securing at least 8% of valid votes polled in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly
Securing at least 8% of valid votes polled in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly is one of the alternative routes for State Party recognition.
11 Which of the following is a criterion for recognition as a National Party? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राष्ट्रीय दल के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त करने का एक मानदंड है?
Correct Answer: (2) Securing at least 6% of valid votes in four or more States and winning at least four Lok Sabha seats
One route for National Party recognition requires at least 6% of valid votes in four or more States in specified Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and at least four members elected to the Lok Sabha.
12 A political party may be recognized as a National Party if it wins at least what percentage of the total seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different States? यदि कोई राजनीतिक दल कम-से-कम तीन अलग-अलग राज्यों से लोकसभा की कुल सीटों का कितना प्रतिशत जीतता है, तो उसे राष्ट्रीय दल के रूप में मान्यता मिल सकती है?
Correct Answer: (2) 2%
One of the criteria for National Party recognition is winning at least 2% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha, with these members elected from at least three different States.
13 Which of the following is another independent criterion for recognition as a National Party? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राष्ट्रीय दल के रूप में मान्यता का एक अन्य स्वतंत्र मानदंड है?
Correct Answer: (3) Recognition as a State Party in at least four States
A political party is eligible for recognition as a National Party if it is recognized as a State Party in at least four States. This is one of the alternative criteria prescribed by the Election Commission.
14 Which authority can allot a reserved election symbol to a recognized political party? किस प्राधिकरण को किसी मान्यता प्राप्त राजनीतिक दल को आरक्षित चुनाव चिह्न आवंटित करने की शक्ति है?
Correct Answer: (4) Election Commission of India
The Election Commission regulates the reservation and allotment of election symbols under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
15 The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order was issued in: निर्वाचन प्रतीक (आरक्षण एवं आवंटन) आदेश किस वर्ष जारी किया गया था?
Correct Answer: (3) 1968
The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 is issued by the Election Commission and provides the framework for recognition of political parties and reservation, allotment and disputes concerning election symbols.
16 In a dispute between two groups of a recognized political party regarding its reserved symbol, the Election Commission generally determines the dispute under which legal framework? किसी मान्यता प्राप्त राजनीतिक दल के दो गुटों के बीच आरक्षित चुनाव चिह्न को लेकर विवाद में निर्वाचन आयोग सामान्यतः किस कानूनी व्यवस्था के तहत विवाद का निर्धारण करता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968
Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols Order provides the Election Commission with the authority to decide disputes concerning rival claims to the same reserved symbol of a recognized political party.
17 Which of the following is a characteristic of a recognized National Party in relation to election symbols? निर्वाचन प्रतीकों के संदर्भ में मान्यता प्राप्त राष्ट्रीय दल की कौन-सी विशेषता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Its reserved symbol is available to it throughout India, subject to the Election Commission's rules
A National Party has its reserved symbol protected for use across India under the Election Symbols Order, subject to the applicable rules governing reservation and allotment.
18 Which of the following best describes an "unrecognized political party"? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा "गैर-मान्यता प्राप्त राजनीतिक दल" का सबसे सही वर्णन है?
Correct Answer: (3) A registered political party that does not satisfy the prescribed criteria for recognition as a State or National Party
Registration and recognition are different concepts. A party may be registered with the Election Commission under Section 29A but may remain unrecognized if it does not satisfy the prescribed electoral performance criteria.
19 Which of the following statements about registration and recognition of political parties is correct? राजनीतिक दलों के पंजीकरण और मान्यता के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
Correct Answer: (3) A party can be registered without being recognized as a State or National Party
Registration under Section 29A is a legal status distinct from recognition. Recognition depends on meeting electoral performance criteria prescribed by the Election Commission.
20 Which constitutional Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions applicable to members of political parties? राजनीतिक दलों के सदस्यों पर लागू दल-बदल विरोधी प्रावधान संविधान की किस अनुसूची में हैं?
Correct Answer: (3) Tenth Schedule
The Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions. It was inserted into the Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
21 The anti-defection law was introduced into the Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment? दल-बदल विरोधी कानून को संविधान में किस संविधान संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया?
Correct Answer: (2) 52nd Amendment
The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule, commonly known as the anti-defection law, to curb political defections by elected representatives.
22 Under the Tenth Schedule, a member of a House belonging to a political party may be disqualified if he or she: दसवीं अनुसूची के तहत किसी राजनीतिक दल से संबंधित सदन का सदस्य कब अयोग्य ठहराया जा सकता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Voluntarily gives up membership of the political party
The Tenth Schedule provides for disqualification if a member of a House belonging to a political party voluntarily gives up membership of that political party. Voluntary giving up may be inferred from conduct and need not always require a formal resignation.
23 A member elected as an independent candidate is liable to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule if he or she: एक निर्दलीय उम्मीदवार के रूप में निर्वाचित सदस्य दसवीं अनुसूची के तहत कब अयोग्य हो सकता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Joins any political party after such election
Under the Tenth Schedule, an elected independent member is disqualified if he joins any political party after being elected.
24 A nominated member of a House can join a political party without attracting disqualification under the Tenth Schedule if he joins it within: किसी सदन का नामित सदस्य दसवीं अनुसूची के तहत अयोग्यता से बचते हुए राजनीतिक दल में कब शामिल हो सकता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Six months from the date he takes his seat
A nominated member may join a political party within six months from the date he takes his seat without attracting disqualification under the Tenth Schedule. Joining a party after that period may attract disqualification.
25 Which of the following constitutes a valid exception to disqualification under the anti-defection law? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा दल-बदल विरोधी कानून के तहत अयोग्यता का वैध अपवाद है?
Correct Answer: (4) A merger supported by not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party
The Tenth Schedule recognizes a merger exception when not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger. The earlier one-third split exception was removed by the 91st Constitutional Amendment.
26 The "split" exception under the anti-defection law was removed by which Constitutional Amendment? दल-बदल विरोधी कानून में "विभाजन" संबंधी अपवाद को किस संविधान संशोधन द्वारा समाप्त किया गया?
Correct Answer: (3) 91st Amendment
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 removed the earlier exception that protected defections by one-third of the members of a legislature party. The merger exception requiring at least two-thirds support remains.
27 Under the anti-defection law, the decision on whether a member has incurred disqualification is made by the: दल-बदल विरोधी कानून के तहत किसी सदस्य ने अयोग्यता अर्जित की है या नहीं, इसका निर्णय कौन करता है?
Correct Answer: (4) Speaker or Chairman of the concerned House
Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule provides that questions of disqualification under the Schedule are decided by the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned House. The Supreme Court, however, can exercise judicial review over such decisions.
28 The Supreme Court held that decisions of the Speaker under the Tenth Schedule are subject to judicial review in which landmark case? सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ने किस ऐतिहासिक मामले में माना कि दसवीं अनुसूची के तहत अध्यक्ष के निर्णय न्यायिक समीक्षा के अधीन हैं?
Correct Answer: (3) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the anti-defection law but held that decisions of the Speaker or Chairman under the Tenth Schedule are subject to judicial review.
29 Which Constitutional Amendment sought to strengthen the anti-defection law by limiting the size of the Council of Ministers? किस संविधान संशोधन ने मंत्रिपरिषद के आकार को सीमित करके दल-बदल विरोधी कानून को मजबूत किया?
Correct Answer: (3) 91st Amendment
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 removed the split exception and provided that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister or Chief Minister, should not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, subject to the constitutional minimum of 12 ministers for States.
30 Under Article 75(1A), inserted by the 91st Constitutional Amendment, the Union Council of Ministers cannot exceed what percentage of the total strength of the Lok Sabha? 91वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा जोड़े गए अनुच्छेद 75(1A) के तहत केंद्रीय मंत्रिपरिषद लोकसभा की कुल सदस्य संख्या के कितने प्रतिशत से अधिक नहीं हो सकती?
Correct Answer: (2) 15%
Article 75(1A) provides that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People.
31 Which of the following statements regarding political parties and the Election Commission is correct? राजनीतिक दलों और निर्वाचन आयोग के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
Correct Answer: (3) The Election Commission registers political parties and recognizes them as State or National Parties according to prescribed rules
The Election Commission has statutory authority over registration under Section 29A and determines recognition under the Election Symbols Order. It does not function as the internal governing body of political parties.
32 Which of the following is NOT a benefit generally associated with recognition as a National or State Party? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा सामान्यतः राष्ट्रीय या राज्य दल के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त होने से जुड़ा लाभ नहीं है?
Correct Answer: (4) Automatic control over the Election Commission
Recognition gives political parties certain legal and electoral benefits, including reserved symbols and prescribed facilities. It does not give them any control over the Election Commission.
33 Which statement best describes the role of political parties in a parliamentary democracy? संसदीय लोकतंत्र में राजनीतिक दलों की भूमिका का सबसे सही वर्णन कौन-सा है?
Correct Answer: (3) They aggregate interests, contest elections, form governments or opposition and facilitate political representation
Political parties are central institutions of representative democracy. They organize political interests, select candidates, mobilize voters, form governments and provide organized opposition.
34 Which of the following is a major distinction between a National Party and a State Party in India? भारत में राष्ट्रीय दल और राज्य दल के बीच प्रमुख अंतर क्या है?
Correct Answer: (3) Recognition as a National Party has validity across India, while State Party recognition is linked to specified State-level electoral performance
National Party recognition operates at the national level, whereas State Party recognition is based on prescribed electoral performance in a particular State. A State Party can still contest elections outside that State as an unrecognized party.
35 Which of the following statements regarding election symbols is correct? निर्वाचन प्रतीकों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
Correct Answer: (3) The Election Commission regulates reservation and allotment of election symbols
The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the Election Commission to regulate election symbols, including their reservation and allotment to recognized political parties.
36 Which constitutional amendment is associated with the introduction of the anti-defection law and the Tenth Schedule? कौन-सा संविधान संशोधन दल-बदल विरोधी कानून और दसवीं अनुसूची की शुरुआत से संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (2) 52nd Amendment
The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 introduced the Tenth Schedule and established the anti-defection framework for Members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
37 Which of the following is NOT a ground for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा दसवीं अनुसूची के तहत अयोग्यता का आधार नहीं है?
Correct Answer: (4) Criticizing the party leadership in a public speech by itself
Mere criticism of party leadership does not automatically attract disqualification under the Tenth Schedule. Disqualification arises on the grounds specifically provided by the Schedule.
38 Under the Tenth Schedule, a member of a political party is disqualified for voting contrary to a party direction unless the act is condoned by the party within: दसवीं अनुसूची के तहत किसी राजनीतिक दल का सदस्य दल के निर्देश के विपरीत मतदान करने पर कब अयोग्य ठहराया जा सकता है, यदि उस कृत्य को दल द्वारा कब तक क्षमा नहीं किया जाता?
Correct Answer: (2) 15 days
A member belonging to a political party may attract disqualification for voting or abstaining contrary to the party direction unless the party has obtained permission or condoned the act within fifteen days from the date of such voting or abstention.
39 Which of the following statements about the anti-defection law is correct? दल-बदल विरोधी कानून के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
Correct Answer: (3) It applies to Members of Parliament and members of State Legislatures
The Tenth Schedule applies to members of both Houses of Parliament and members of State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils, wherever applicable.
40 Which of the following correctly describes a political party's "whip"? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा राजनीतिक दल के "व्हिप" का सही वर्णन करता है?
Correct Answer: (3) A party direction concerning voting or attendance in the legislature
A whip is an instruction issued by a political party to its legislators regarding attendance, voting or other legislative conduct. Disobedience in specified circumstances can attract consequences under the Tenth Schedule.
41 Which of the following is the correct constitutional relationship between political parties and the anti-defection law? राजनीतिक दलों और दल-बदल विरोधी कानून के बीच सही संवैधानिक संबंध कौन-सा है?
Correct Answer: (3) The Tenth Schedule regulates defection by legislators associated with political parties
The anti-defection law is directed primarily at the conduct of legislators in relation to political party affiliation, voting directions, defections and mergers. It is not a general law governing every aspect of political parties.
42 Which of the following statements regarding the funding of political parties is correct under the Representation of the People Act framework? जन प्रतिनिधित्व अधिनियम की व्यवस्था के तहत राजनीतिक दलों के वित्तपोषण के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
Correct Answer: (3) Registered political parties are subject to statutory rules concerning contributions, accounts and reporting
The Representation of the People Act, 1951 contains provisions relating to political party contributions and reporting. Political parties are subject to statutory requirements concerning donations, accounts and disclosures.
43 Section 29B of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals primarily with: जन प्रतिनिधित्व अधिनियम, 1951 की धारा 29B मुख्यतः किससे संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (2) Acceptance of contributions by political parties
Section 29B permits registered political parties to accept voluntary contributions from persons or companies, subject to the restrictions and disclosure requirements prescribed by law.
44 Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 primarily relates to: जन प्रतिनिधित्व अधिनियम, 1951 की धारा 29C मुख्यतः किससे संबंधित है?
Correct Answer: (3) Declaration of donations received by political parties
Section 29C deals with the reporting of donations received by political parties above the statutory threshold and the submission of prescribed reports to the Election Commission.
45 Which of the following statements about electoral bonds and political party funding is most appropriate under the current constitutional context? वर्तमान संवैधानिक संदर्भ में चुनावी बॉन्ड और राजनीतिक दलों के वित्तपोषण के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सबसे उपयुक्त है?
Correct Answer: (3) The Supreme Court struck down the electoral bond scheme in 2024 on constitutional grounds
In February 2024, the Supreme Court declared the Electoral Bond Scheme and related statutory changes unconstitutional, emphasizing voters' right to information regarding political funding. The scheme therefore cannot be treated as a current funding mechanism.
46 Which of the following is a constitutional principle relevant to the regulation of political parties in India? भारत में राजनीतिक दलों के विनियमन से संबंधित कौन-सा संवैधानिक सिद्धांत प्रासंगिक है?
Correct Answer: (3) Political parties must function within the constitutional framework, including democratic and secular principles required for registration
Section 29A requires the constitution or rules of a registered political party to affirm allegiance to the Constitution and principles of socialism, secularism and democracy and to uphold India's sovereignty, unity and integrity.
47 Consider the following statements regarding political party recognition: I. The Election Commission determines recognition. II. A party may qualify as a State Party through more than one alternative criterion. III. Recognition as a State Party in four States is one route to National Party status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? राजनीतिक दल की मान्यता के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. निर्वाचन आयोग मान्यता निर्धारित करता है। II. कोई दल एक से अधिक वैकल्पिक मानदंडों के माध्यम से राज्य दल के रूप में योग्य हो सकता है। III. चार राज्यों में राज्य दल के रूप में मान्यता राष्ट्रीय दल बनने का एक मार्ग है। उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Correct Answer: (4) I, II and III
The Election Commission determines recognition under the Election Symbols Order. State Party recognition can be achieved through alternative electoral performance criteria, and recognition as a State Party in at least four States is an independent route to National Party recognition.
48 Consider the following statements about the Tenth Schedule: I. The one-third split exception was removed. II. The merger exception requires support of at least two-thirds of the legislature party. III. The Speaker's decision is completely immune from judicial review. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? दसवीं अनुसूची के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. एक-तिहाई विभाजन का अपवाद समाप्त कर दिया गया है। II. विलय के अपवाद के लिए विधायी दल के कम-से-कम दो-तिहाई सदस्यों का समर्थन आवश्यक है। III. अध्यक्ष का निर्णय न्यायिक समीक्षा से पूरी तरह मुक्त है। उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Correct Answer: (3) Only I and II
The 91st Amendment removed the one-third split exception, while the merger exception continues to require at least two-thirds support. In Kihoto Hollohan, the Supreme Court held that the Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review.
49 Consider the following statements regarding National Party recognition: I. A party can qualify by securing 6% of valid votes in four or more States and winning at least four Lok Sabha seats. II. A party can qualify by winning at least 2% of Lok Sabha seats, with members elected from at least three States. III. Recognition as a State Party in at least four States is another route. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? राष्ट्रीय दल की मान्यता के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. कोई दल चार या अधिक राज्यों में 6% वैध मत प्राप्त करके और कम-से-कम चार लोकसभा सीटें जीतकर योग्य हो सकता है। II. कोई दल लोकसभा की कम-से-कम 2% सीटें जीतकर, जिनके सदस्य कम-से-कम तीन राज्यों से निर्वाचित हों, योग्य हो सकता है। III. कम-से-कम चार राज्यों में राज्य दल के रूप में मान्यता एक अन्य मार्ग है। उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?
Correct Answer: (4) I, II and III
The Election Commission provides multiple alternative routes for National Party recognition. These include the 6%-vote plus four-Lok-Sabha-seat criterion, the 2%-Lok-Sabha-seat criterion across at least three States, and recognition as a State Party in at least four States.
50 Which one of the following combinations correctly matches the institution or provision with its principal subject relating to political parties? निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संयोजन संस्था या प्रावधान को राजनीतिक दलों से संबंधित उसके प्रमुख विषय के साथ सही सुमेलित करता है?
Correct Answer: (3) Section 29A — Registration of political parties; Election Symbols Order — Recognition and symbols; Tenth Schedule — Anti-defection
Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides the statutory basis for registration of political parties. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 governs recognition and election symbols, while the Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions applicable to legislators.
1 Which of the following statements regarding political parties in India is correct?
Correct Answer: (2) Political parties seeking registration are registered with the Election Commission of India under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Article 324 deals with the Election Commission's superintendence, direction and control over elections; it does not expressly define political parties.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides the statutory framework for registration of political parties with the Election Commission.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Political party registration is handled by the Election Commission, not the Home Ministry.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The Supreme Court does not register political parties.
2 Consider the following statements about registration of political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) A newly formed political party must apply to the Election Commission within the prescribed period, including the 30-day period specified under Section 29A.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 30-day period is a statutory requirement for making the application, but the statement does not fully identify the prescribed registration framework; the correct comprehensive statement is Option 4.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The application is made to the Election Commission of India.
- Statement 3 (❌) - A party need not first win an election to obtain registration.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Section 29A provides the registration procedure, including the requirement to apply within 30 days of formation.
3 Which of the following is NOT a category of political party recognized under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968?
Correct Answer: (4) Constitutional Party
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - National Party is a recognized category under the Symbols Order.
- Statement 2 (✅) - State Party is a recognized category under the Symbols Order.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Registered Unrecognized Political Parties are separately identified by the Election Commission.
- Statement 4 (❌) - "Constitutional Party" is not a recognized category under the Election Symbols Order.
4 Which body has the authority to recognize a political party as a National Party or State Party?
Correct Answer: (3) Election Commission of India
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Parliament makes election laws but does not itself recognize individual parties as National or State Parties.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Union Cabinet has no such recognition power.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The Election Commission recognizes political parties under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The Supreme Court may adjudicate legal disputes but does not ordinarily perform the ECI's party-recognition function.
5 Which of the following statements about the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It provides for specification, reservation, choice and allotment of election symbols and recognition of political parties in relation thereto.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Symbols Order is an order made by the Election Commission under its constitutional and statutory powers.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Its primary subject is election symbols and party recognition, not party finances.
- Statement 3 (❌) - It applies to Parliamentary and State Assembly elections within its scope.
- Statement 4 (✅) - This accurately describes the purpose of the 1968 Symbols Order.
6 Which of the following is the most important legal basis for recognition of National and State Parties by the Election Commission?
Correct Answer: (1) Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - The Election Symbols Order, 1968 contains the framework for recognition of political parties and reservation/allotment of symbols.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Government of India Act, 1935 predates the Constitution and does not provide the present recognition framework.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The Indian Penal Code did not establish the party-recognition system.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The Finance Commission Act has no role in recognizing political parties.
7 Under the Election Symbols Order, which one of the following is NOT a criterion for recognition of a political party as a National Party?
Correct Answer: (4) Winning at least one Rajya Sabha seat from every State in India
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - One route to National Party recognition involves specified vote and seat performance in Lok Sabha/Assembly elections.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Recognition as a State Party in at least four States is one of the prescribed routes.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Another route is obtaining at least 6% votes in four or more States in specified elections along with the required Lok Sabha seats.
- Statement 4 (❌) - There is no requirement to win a Rajya Sabha seat from every State.
8 A political party can be recognized as a National Party if, among other alternatives, it is recognized as a State Party in at least how many States?
Correct Answer: (3) Four States
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Recognition in two States alone does not satisfy this particular route.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Recognition in three States alone does not satisfy this route.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Recognition as a State Party in at least four States is one of the prescribed conditions for National Party recognition.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Six States are not required for this route.
9 Which of the following is one of the prescribed routes for recognition as a National Party?
Correct Answer: (3) Securing at least 6% of the total votes in four or more States in specified Lok Sabha or Assembly elections and winning at least four Lok Sabha seats.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - No such requirement exists.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Winning all Lok Sabha seats in one State is not by itself the prescribed national recognition route.
- Statement 3 (✅) - This is one of the routes prescribed by the Election Symbols Order.
- Statement 4 (❌) - This is not a prescribed National Party criterion.
10 Which of the following combinations correctly represents another route for recognition as a National Party?
Correct Answer: (4) At least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats, with such members elected from at least three States
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 2% criterion also requires election of the members from at least three States.
- Statement 2 (❌) - 5% of Lok Sabha seats from five States is not the prescribed route.
- Statement 3 (❌) - 10% from two States is not a National Party criterion.
- Statement 4 (✅) - This is the prescribed seat-based route for National Party recognition.
11 Which of the following statements regarding recognition as a State Party is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) A party can qualify through specified combinations of vote share and seats in Assembly or Lok Sabha elections in the State.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Majority in the Assembly is not necessary for State Party recognition.
- Statement 2 (❌) - A party need not form the government to obtain recognition.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The Symbols Order specifies multiple alternative vote-seat routes for State Party recognition.
- Statement 4 (❌) - State Party recognition may be achieved through Assembly election performance as well.
12 Which of the following is a prescribed route for recognition as a State Party?
Correct Answer: (1) Securing at least 6% of valid votes polled in the State in a specified Assembly election and winning at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - This is one of the alternative routes to State Party recognition.
- Statement 2 (❌) - There is no such requirement.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Rajya Sabha seats are not distributed by districts.
- Statement 4 (❌) - National vote share is relevant to National Party routes, not this State Party criterion.
13 Which of the following statements regarding a reserved election symbol is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) A reserved symbol is ordinarily reserved for the recognized National or State Party for which it is allotted.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Reserved symbols cannot ordinarily be used by independent candidates.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Symbols Order concerns Parliamentary and Assembly elections within its scope.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Reserved symbols are associated with recognized political parties.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The Returning Officer must follow the Election Symbols Order and ECI notifications.
14 What is the basic distinction between a reserved symbol and a free symbol?
Correct Answer: (2) A reserved symbol is reserved for a recognized party, whereas a free symbol is a symbol other than a reserved symbol.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The distinction is the opposite of what is stated.
- Statement 2 (✅) - This correctly reflects the distinction under the Symbols Order.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Reserved and free symbols have different meanings and allocation rules.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Free symbols can be allotted to candidates according to the applicable rules.
15 Which of the following statements about the Election Commission's power over political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) The ECI registers political parties and recognizes National and State Parties under the applicable legal framework.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The ECI registers parties under Section 29A; it does not create them.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Political parties have their own organizational structures.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The ECI does not prescribe the ideological programme of parties.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Registration and recognition are important functions of the ECI under the statutory and Symbols Order framework.
16 Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between registration and recognition of political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) Registration as a political party does not by itself confer recognition as a National or State Party.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Registration and recognition are distinct legal stages/statuses.
- Statement 2 (❌) - A registered unrecognized party does not automatically receive a reserved symbol nationwide.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Recognition depends upon fulfilling the criteria prescribed under the Symbols Order.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Registration is the foundational statutory process; recognition is a separate status.
17 Which constitutional Article is most directly associated with the Election Commission's superintendence, direction and control of elections?
Correct Answer: (2) Article 324
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Article 356 concerns constitutional machinery in States.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Article 368 deals with constitutional amendment.
18 Consider the following statements regarding political parties and the Constitution of India. Which one is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) The Constitution provides the broader democratic framework, while detailed registration and recognition of political parties are governed mainly by election laws and ECI orders.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Constitution does not contain an exhaustive definition and code for political parties.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Political parties are registered and recognized under statutory and ECI frameworks.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Their functioning is connected with several constitutional and statutory provisions, not merely the Preamble.
- Statement 4 (✅) - This correctly captures the constitutional-statutorily regulated nature of political parties.
19 Which Fundamental Right is particularly important for the formation of political parties?
Correct Answer: (3) Article 19(1)(c), concerning the right to form associations or unions
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Freedom of speech is important to political activity, but the specific freedom to form associations is in Article 19(1)(c).
- Statement 2 (❌) - Article 21 does not specifically confer the right to form political parties.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Article 19(1)(c) guarantees citizens the right to form associations or unions, subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(4).
- Statement 4 (❌) - Article 32 concerns constitutional remedies.
20 Which of the following can be a ground for reasonable restriction on the right to form associations under Article 19(4)?
Correct Answer: (2) Sovereignty and integrity of India, public order or morality, among the constitutionally specified grounds
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Administrative convenience is not an independently specified ground under Article 19(4).
- Statement 2 (✅) - Article 19(4) permits reasonable restrictions in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of India, public order or morality.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Mere disagreement with government policy is not by itself a constitutional ground.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Membership size is not a specified ground under Article 19(4).
21 Which of the following statements about the anti-defection law and political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) The Tenth Schedule contains provisions dealing with disqualification on grounds of defection.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The anti-defection provisions are in the Tenth Schedule.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The law applies to members of political parties and also contains provisions concerning independent and nominated members.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The Tenth Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Amendment, deals with defection-related disqualification.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The anti-defection law was introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
22 Which of the following statements regarding a member elected as a candidate of a political party is correct under the Tenth Schedule?
Correct Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - Voluntarily giving up party membership is a ground for disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Voting or abstaining contrary to party directions can attract disqualification, subject to the stipulated conditions and exceptions.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The anti-defection law directly regulates party affiliation and legislative conduct.
- Statement 4 (❌) - This is the combination option; Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
23 Which of the following statements regarding the merger exception under the Tenth Schedule is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) The merger exception applies when not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger, subject to the Tenth Schedule.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Two members are not sufficient.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Tenth Schedule does not prescribe prior ECI approval as the condition stated here.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The merger exception requires at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party to agree to the merger.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Unanimous approval of all party members is not required.
24 Which Constitutional Amendment removed the provision relating to the "split" of a political party from the anti-defection law?
Correct Answer: (4) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The 52nd Amendment introduced the anti-defection law.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The 61st Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 73rd Amendment concerns Panchayats.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The 91st Amendment removed the split exception and strengthened anti-defection provisions.
25 Which of the following statements about political party whips is correct?
Correct Answer: (2) A whip is primarily a party mechanism for communicating voting directions to legislators; disobeying it can have consequences under the Tenth Schedule in specified circumstances.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The office of whip is not expressly created by the Constitution.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Political parties use whips to maintain legislative discipline, and certain violations can attract anti-defection consequences.
- Statement 3 (❌) - A whip itself does not possess the constitutional power to remove a legislator.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Whips are party functionaries, not presidential appointees.
26 Which of the following statements about internal democracy in political parties is correct in the context of ECI registration guidelines?
Correct Answer: (3) ECI registration guidelines emphasize a democratic organizational structure and decision-making process in party constitutions.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - ECI registration guidelines require party constitutions to reflect democratic functioning.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The guidelines emphasize democratic decision-making rather than an unrestricted veto power.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Democratic organizational functioning is an important feature required in the registration framework.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The registration framework requires details concerning party organs, their powers and functions.
27 Which of the following statements regarding the constitution of a political party for registration is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) The party constitution should contain its name, objectives, membership provisions and organizational structure consistent with the applicable registration requirements.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - ECI registration guidelines require membership provisions open to adult Indian citizens and do not support a religiously exclusive structure.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The objectives should be in consonance with the Constitution of India.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The registration guidelines contemplate membership open to adult Indian citizens.
- Statement 4 (✅) - These are among the basic matters required in the party constitution submitted for registration.
28 Which of the following statements about political party funding is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) The Representation of the People Act contains provisions concerning declaration of donations received by political parties.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Political parties are subject to statutory reporting requirements.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Applicable laws require disclosure/reporting of specified political contributions.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with declaration of donations received by political parties.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The ECI has an important role in receiving party contribution reports; the RBI is not the sole recipient.
29 Which of the following statements about Section 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It deals with declaration of donations received by political parties.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Delimitation is governed by constitutional and statutory provisions concerning delimitation.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Electoral registration is governed by provisions of election law such as the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Recognition is primarily governed by the Election Symbols Order.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Section 29C concerns declarations relating to donations received by political parties.
30 Which of the following statements regarding electoral trusts and political party contributions is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) Political party finance involves statutory disclosure and reporting frameworks, including provisions concerning contributions and electoral trusts.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Electoral trusts are not constitutional bodies under Article 324.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Recognition of parties remains an Election Commission function under the applicable framework.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Political party funding is subject to statutory reporting and disclosure mechanisms.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The law regulates contributions rather than imposing an absolute prohibition on all lawful contributions.
31 Which of the following statements regarding the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (2) Section 29A provides for registration of associations and bodies of individual citizens as political parties with the Election Commission.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Act specifically contains Section 29A on political party registration.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Section 29A is the central statutory provision for registration of political parties.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Governor appointments are governed by Article 155 and related provisions.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The Finance Commission is provided under Article 280.
32 Which of the following statements about the National Parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) A National Party has a reserved symbol associated with it for use by its candidates under the applicable election-symbol rules.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - National Parties may contest elections across India, subject to election law.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Reserved and free symbols are legally distinct.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Recognition as a National Party is associated with reservation of its symbol under the Symbols Order.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Political parties commonly play a central role in selecting and setting up candidates.
33 Which of the following statements regarding a State Party is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) Its reserved symbol is ordinarily reserved in the State where it is recognized, although the ECI may permit use of a State Party's symbol in another State under specified conditions.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - State Party recognition is ordinarily State-specific.
- Statement 2 (❌) - A State Party can contest elections elsewhere subject to the applicable rules.
- Statement 3 (❌) - One seat outside the State does not automatically confer National Party status.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The Symbols Order contains mechanisms through which a State Party's reserved symbol may be allotted in another State in specified circumstances.
34 Which of the following statements about the Election Commission's decision in disputes over party symbols is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) The Election Commission has authority under the Symbols Order to decide disputes regarding the claim to a reserved symbol in specified situations.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The President does not perform this function.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Speaker does not generally decide ECI symbol disputes.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The Symbols Order provides a mechanism for the ECI to decide claims and disputes concerning reserved symbols.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The Returning Officer applies ECI rules during an election but does not replace the ECI in such party symbol disputes.
35 Which of the following is a major reason political parties are essential to a parliamentary democracy?
Correct Answer: (4) They aggregate interests, organize electoral competition, form governments and provide an institutional link between citizens and government.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Political parties operate through elections rather than eliminating them.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Independent candidates may contest elections subject to election law.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Political parties function within the constitutional framework.
- Statement 4 (✅) - These are core political-science functions of parties in representative democracy.
36 Which of the following statements best describes the role of opposition political parties in a parliamentary democracy?
Correct Answer: (3) The opposition scrutinizes government policies, holds the executive accountable and offers alternative policy positions.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Opposition is an essential feature of competitive parliamentary democracy.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The opposition may support or oppose measures depending on the issue.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Accountability, scrutiny and alternative policy-making are important opposition functions.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Government changes depend on parliamentary majority and constitutional procedures.
37 Which of the following statements about coalition governments is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) A coalition government may be formed when no single party has the required majority and parties combine to command legislative support.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Constitution does not prohibit coalition governments.
- Statement 2 (❌) - State Parties and other parties can participate in coalitions.
- Statement 3 (❌) - No constitutional amendment is required merely to form a coalition government.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Coalition governments arise through legislative support and parliamentary conventions within the constitutional framework.
38 Which of the following statements regarding political parties and elections in India is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) Registered unrecognized political parties may contest elections, subject to the applicable election laws and symbol-allotment rules.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Unrecognized registered parties can also contest elections.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Registration does not require prior recognition as a National or State Party.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Registered Unrecognized Political Parties are a recognized category in the ECI framework and may participate in elections subject to law.
- Statement 4 (❌) - State Parties and other registered parties may also contest Assembly elections.
39 Which of the following statements regarding the symbols of registered unrecognized political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) They generally choose from free symbols or may receive a common symbol under the conditions prescribed by the Election Commission.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Reserved symbols belong to recognized parties.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Registered unrecognized parties can receive symbols under the applicable rules.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Free symbols and common-symbol arrangements are available under specified ECI rules.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Reserved symbols cannot be freely used by unrecognized parties.
40 Which of the following statements about the Election Symbols Order and political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) It provides a framework for reservation and allotment of symbols and recognition of political parties in relation to symbols.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The Order specifically concerns election symbols as well as party recognition.
- Statement 2 (❌) - It maintains the distinction between reserved and free symbols.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Candidates are allotted symbols according to the applicable election rules, not simply the largest party's vote share.
- Statement 4 (✅) - This accurately summarizes the central purpose of the Symbols Order.
41 Which of the following statements regarding the Model Code of Conduct and political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) The Model Code of Conduct provides guidelines for political parties and candidates during elections and is enforced through the Election Commission's election-related authority.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The MCC is not a constitutional amendment.
- Statement 2 (❌) - There is no comprehensive parliamentary Act called the Model Code Act.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The MCC contains guidelines for parties and candidates during elections and is administered by the ECI.
- Statement 4 (❌) - It applies to political parties and candidates, not merely independents.
42 Which of the following is a core principle of the Model Code of Conduct concerning political parties?
Correct Answer: (4) Political parties are expected to avoid activities that may aggravate differences or create tension between communities and to maintain electoral propriety.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The MCC restricts misuse of official machinery and government resources for electoral advantage.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Appeals to caste and communal feelings are subject to restrictions under election law and the MCC.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The MCC promotes restraint and decorum in election campaigning.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Maintaining communal harmony and electoral propriety is a key principle of the MCC.
43 Which of the following statements about the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and political parties is correct?
Correct Answer: (1) Section 29A provides for registration of political parties, while Section 29C deals with declaration of donations received by political parties.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - This correctly matches the two important provisions concerning political parties.
- Statement 2 (❌) - Election symbols are primarily governed by the Symbols Order, while delimitation is governed by separate constitutional and statutory provisions.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Neither provision deals exclusively with voter registration.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The Election Commission is a constitutional body under Article 324.
44 Which of the following statements regarding political party mergers and splits is correct?
Correct Answer: (2) The earlier one-third split exception was removed by the 91st Constitutional Amendment, while the two-thirds merger exception continues.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - The split exception was removed by the 91st Amendment.
- Statement 2 (✅) - The 91st Amendment removed the split exception but retained the merger exception requiring at least two-thirds support.
- Statement 3 (❌) - The 52nd Amendment introduced the anti-defection framework; it did not abolish both exceptions.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Presidential permission is not the constitutional condition stated in the Tenth Schedule.
45 Which of the following statements about political party discipline in Parliament is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) Certain conduct contrary to party directions can attract disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, while the decision is made by the competent presiding authority subject to judicial review.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Mere disagreement does not automatically result in disqualification; the Tenth Schedule specifies particular grounds and conditions.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Speaker or Chairman of the relevant House is the initial decision-maker under the Tenth Schedule.
- Statement 3 (❌) - Party discipline and anti-defection provisions are closely connected.
- Statement 4 (✅) - This correctly reflects the constitutional scheme and judicial position following cases such as Kihoto Hollohan.
46 Which of the following statements regarding political parties and the President's election is correct?
Correct Answer: (3) Political parties may influence candidate selection and voting strategy, but the constitutional Electoral College consists of elected representatives specified by Article 54.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - Political parties do not constitute the constitutional Electoral College.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The Electoral College is not restricted to National Party members.
- Statement 3 (✅) - Article 54 specifies the Electoral College; political parties operate within this constitutional framework.
- Statement 4 (❌) - The ECI conducts the election but does not nominate candidates for President.
47 Which of the following statements regarding political parties and the election of the Vice-President is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) The Vice-President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament, and political parties may play a role in candidate selection and voting strategy.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - State Legislative Assemblies do not form the Electoral College for the Vice-President.
- Statement 2 (❌) - The election is indirect.
- Statement 3 (❌) - All members of both Houses of Parliament participate, subject to the constitutional scheme, not merely National Party MPs.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Article 66 provides for election by members of both Houses of Parliament.
48 Which of the following statements regarding political parties and the parliamentary system is correct?
Correct Answer: (2) Recognition as a National Party is based on prescribed electoral performance criteria and does not require forming the Union Government.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (❌) - A party does not need a Lok Sabha majority for recognition.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Recognition depends on the electoral criteria prescribed by the Election Symbols Order.
- Statement 3 (❌) - A party need not form the Union Government to become a National Party.
- Statement 4 (❌) - Recognition is determined by the Election Commission.
49 Consider the following statements about political parties in India: 1. Registration of political parties is governed by Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. Recognition as a National or State Party is governed by the Election Symbols Order, 1968. 3. The Tenth Schedule deals with disqualification on grounds of defection. 4. Article 19(1)(c) protects the right to form associations or unions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - Section 29A provides the statutory basis for registration of political parties.
- Statement 2 (✅) - The Election Symbols Order provides the framework for recognition and symbols.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The Tenth Schedule contains anti-defection provisions.
- Statement 4 (✅) - Article 19(1)(c) guarantees citizens the right to form associations or unions, subject to Article 19(4).
50 Consider the following statements about political parties in India: 1. The Election Commission registers political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. Recognition as a National or State Party is distinct from mere registration. 3. The Election Symbols Order, 1968 deals with reservation and allotment of election symbols. 4. The Tenth Schedule provides the constitutional framework for disqualification on grounds of defection. Which of the following is correct?
Correct Answer: (4) All of the above statements are correct.
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (✅) - Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for registration of political parties with the Election Commission.
- Statement 2 (✅) - Registration and recognition are distinct; a registered party need not automatically be a National or State Party.
- Statement 3 (✅) - The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 governs specification, reservation, choice and allotment of election symbols and party recognition in relation to them.
- Statement 4 (✅) - The Tenth Schedule contains provisions for disqualification on grounds of defection.
1 Match the Following:
- Article 324
- Article 102
- Article 191
- Article 329
- Disqualification of State Legislature members
- Election Commission of India
- Disqualification of Parliament members
- Bar on judicial interference in elections
- Political party registration
- Article 324
- Article 102
- Article 191
- Article 329
- Disqualification of State Legislature members
- Election Commission of India
- Disqualification of Parliament members
- Bar on judicial interference in elections
- Political party registration
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | A | D |
| (B) | C | A | D | B |
| (C) | B | C | A | D |
| (D) | D | B | C | A |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Article 324 - B - It vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission..
- Article 102 - C - It provides disqualifications for membership of Parliament..
- Article 191 - A - It provides disqualifications for membership of State Legislatures..
- Article 329 - D - It restricts judicial interference in electoral matters..
2 Match the Following:
- Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Election Symbols Order, 1968
- Article 103
- Article 192
- Decision on disqualification of State legislator
- Recognition and reservation of election symbols
- Decision on disqualification of MP
- Registration of political parties
- Conduct of local body elections
- Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Election Symbols Order, 1968
- Article 103
- Article 192
- Decision on disqualification of State legislator
- Recognition and reservation of election symbols
- Decision on disqualification of MP
- Registration of political parties
- Conduct of local body elections
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | C | A |
| (B) | D | B | C | A |
| (C) | B | D | A | C |
| (D) | C | A | B | D |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Representation of the People Act, 1951 - D - Section 29A provides for registration of political parties..
- Election Symbols Order, 1968 - B - It regulates reservation and allotment of election symbols..
- Article 103 - C - The President decides parliamentary disqualification questions after obtaining the ECI opinion..
- Article 192 - A - The Governor decides State legislative disqualification questions after obtaining the ECI opinion..
3 Match the Following:
- National Party
- State Party
- Registered Unrecognised Party
- Independent Candidate
- Party recognised in one or more States/UTs under prescribed conditions
- Contestant without affiliation to a political party
- Party satisfying national recognition conditions
- Party registered but not recognised as national or State party
- Party nominated by the President
- National Party
- State Party
- Registered Unrecognised Party
- Independent Candidate
- Party recognised in one or more States/UTs under prescribed conditions
- Contestant without affiliation to a political party
- Party satisfying national recognition conditions
- Party registered but not recognised as national or State party
- Party nominated by the President
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | A | D | B |
| (B) | A | C | B | D |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | D | B | C | A |
Correct Answer: (C)
- National Party - C - It satisfies the Election Commission's prescribed national recognition criteria..
- State Party - A - It is recognised in a State or UT on satisfying prescribed conditions..
- Registered Unrecognised Party - D - It is registered but lacks recognised national or State party status..
- Independent Candidate - B - An independent candidate contests without political party affiliation..
4 Match the Following:
- Section 29A, RPA 1951
- Section 29B, RPA 1951
- Section 29C, RPA 1951
- Section 123, RPA 1951
- Corrupt practices
- Registration of political parties
- Political contributions
- Declaration regarding donations received
- Allocation of seats in Parliament
- Section 29A, RPA 1951
- Section 29B, RPA 1951
- Section 29C, RPA 1951
- Section 123, RPA 1951
- Corrupt practices
- Registration of political parties
- Political contributions
- Declaration regarding donations received
- Allocation of seats in Parliament
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | B | C | D | A |
| (C) | C | B | A | D |
| (D) | D | A | C | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Section 29A, RPA 1951 - B - It deals with registration of political parties..
- Section 29B, RPA 1951 - C - It concerns political contributions to parties..
- Section 29C, RPA 1951 - D - It deals with declarations concerning donations received..
- Section 123, RPA 1951 - A - It identifies various corrupt practices in elections..
5 Match the Following:
- First-past-the-post system
- Proportional representation
- Single transferable vote
- List system
- Preference-based transfer of votes
- Candidate obtaining highest votes wins
- Seats distributed broadly according to vote share
- Party candidates arranged on a list
- All candidates receive equal votes
- First-past-the-post system
- Proportional representation
- Single transferable vote
- List system
- Preference-based transfer of votes
- Candidate obtaining highest votes wins
- Seats distributed broadly according to vote share
- Party candidates arranged on a list
- All candidates receive equal votes
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | A | D |
| (B) | D | B | C | A |
| (C) | A | D | B | C |
| (D) | B | C | A | D |
Correct Answer: (D)
- First-past-the-post system - B - The candidate securing the highest number of votes wins..
- Proportional representation - C - It seeks representation broadly corresponding to vote share..
- Single transferable vote - A - Voters express preferences and votes can be transferred..
- List system - D - Political parties present candidates through lists..
6 Match the Following:
- Article 75(3)
- Article 164(2)
- Article 105
- Article 194
- Collective responsibility of State Council of Ministers
- Parliamentary privileges
- Collective responsibility of Union Council of Ministers
- State Legislature privileges
- Political party registration
- Article 75(3)
- Article 164(2)
- Article 105
- Article 194
- Collective responsibility of State Council of Ministers
- Parliamentary privileges
- Collective responsibility of Union Council of Ministers
- State Legislature privileges
- Political party registration
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | A | B | D |
| (B) | A | C | D | B |
| (C) | B | D | A | C |
| (D) | D | B | C | A |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Article 75(3) - C - The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha..
- Article 164(2) - A - The State Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly..
- Article 105 - B - It concerns privileges and powers of Parliament and its members..
- Article 194 - D - It concerns privileges and powers of State Legislatures..
7 Match the Following:
- Anti-Defection Law
- 52nd Constitutional Amendment
- Tenth Schedule
- 91st Constitutional Amendment
- Introduced the Tenth Schedule
- Inserted anti-defection provisions
- Limited size of Council of Ministers
- Contains grounds of disqualification for defection
- Created the Election Commission
- Anti-Defection Law
- 52nd Constitutional Amendment
- Tenth Schedule
- 91st Constitutional Amendment
- Introduced the Tenth Schedule
- Inserted anti-defection provisions
- Limited size of Council of Ministers
- Contains grounds of disqualification for defection
- Created the Election Commission
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | A | D | C |
| (B) | B | A | D | C |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | A | D | C | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Anti-Defection Law - B - The 52nd Amendment introduced the constitutional anti-defection framework..
- 52nd Constitutional Amendment - A - It inserted the Tenth Schedule in 1985..
- Tenth Schedule - D - It specifies constitutional grounds for disqualification on defection..
- 91st Constitutional Amendment - C - It limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the legislature..
8 Match the Following:
- Split exception
- Merger exception
- Voluntarily giving up party membership
- Voting contrary to party direction
- One-third split exception
- Two-thirds merger threshold
- Ground for disqualification
- Ground subject to permitted conditions
- Mandatory presidential approval
- Split exception
- Merger exception
- Voluntarily giving up party membership
- Voting contrary to party direction
- One-third split exception
- Two-thirds merger threshold
- Ground for disqualification
- Ground subject to permitted conditions
- Mandatory presidential approval
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | C | D | B | A |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | A | B | C | D |
Correct Answer: (D)
- Split exception - A - The earlier one-third split exception was removed by the 91st Amendment..
- Merger exception - B - Merger protection requires at least two-thirds of the legislature party..
- Voluntarily giving up party membership - C - It is a ground of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule..
- Voting contrary to party direction - D - Defying the party whip can attract disqualification subject to the Schedule's conditions..
9 Match the Following:
- Whip
- Floor Test
- Confidence Motion
- No-Confidence Motion
- Tests majority support of government
- Party direction to legislators regarding voting
- Motion seeking support for government
- Motion expressing loss of confidence in government
- Election of President
- Whip
- Floor Test
- Confidence Motion
- No-Confidence Motion
- Tests majority support of government
- Party direction to legislators regarding voting
- Motion seeking support for government
- Motion expressing loss of confidence in government
- Election of President
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | A | C | D |
| (B) | C | B | D | A |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | A | D | B | C |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Whip - B - A party whip directs legislators on voting in the House..
- Floor Test - A - It determines whether the government commands majority support on the floor..
- Confidence Motion - C - It is used to establish support for the government..
- No-Confidence Motion - D - It tests whether the House continues to support the Council of Ministers..
10 Match the Following:
- Election Commission
- Presiding Officer
- President
- Governor
- Decides certain parliamentary disqualification questions
- Constitutional authority over elections
- Decides certain State legislative disqualification questions
- Decides Tenth Schedule disqualification in respective House
- Registers political parties under RPA
- Election Commission
- Presiding Officer
- President
- Governor
- Decides certain parliamentary disqualification questions
- Constitutional authority over elections
- Decides certain State legislative disqualification questions
- Decides Tenth Schedule disqualification in respective House
- Registers political parties under RPA
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | A | C |
| (B) | B | D | A | C |
| (C) | E | C | B | D |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Election Commission - B - Article 324 gives it constitutional control over elections..
- Presiding Officer - D - The relevant House presiding officer decides Tenth Schedule disqualification questions..
- President - A - The President decides Article 103 disqualification questions after ECI opinion..
- Governor - C - The Governor decides Article 192 disqualification questions after ECI opinion..
11 Match the Following:
- National party recognition criterion
- State party recognition criterion
- Reserved symbol
- Free symbol
- Symbol available for allocation subject to rules
- Recognition based on prescribed electoral performance
- Recognition based on prescribed performance across specified States
- Symbol reserved for a recognised party
- Symbol allotted only to independent candidates
- National party recognition criterion
- State party recognition criterion
- Reserved symbol
- Free symbol
- Symbol available for allocation subject to rules
- Recognition based on prescribed electoral performance
- Recognition based on prescribed performance across specified States
- Symbol reserved for a recognised party
- Symbol allotted only to independent candidates
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | C | B | A | D |
| (C) | B | C | D | A |
| (D) | D | A | C | B |
Correct Answer: (C)
- National party recognition criterion - B - National recognition depends on prescribed electoral performance criteria..
- State party recognition criterion - C - State recognition depends on prescribed performance within a State or UT..
- Reserved symbol - D - It is reserved for the recognised party to which it is allotted..
- Free symbol - A - It can be allotted according to the applicable symbol rules..
12 Match the Following:
- Political party manifesto
- Election symbol
- Party constitution
- Party registration
- Internal organisational document
- Programme and policy commitments
- Legal recognition under prescribed election law
- Visual identifier allotted under election rules
- Judicial appointment mechanism
- Political party manifesto
- Election symbol
- Party constitution
- Party registration
- Internal organisational document
- Programme and policy commitments
- Legal recognition under prescribed election law
- Visual identifier allotted under election rules
- Judicial appointment mechanism
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | A | C |
| (B) | D | B | C | A |
| (C) | A | C | D | B |
| (D) | C | A | B | D |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Political party manifesto - B - It presents the party's policies and programme to voters..
- Election symbol - D - It serves as a visual identifier in elections..
- Party constitution - A - It governs internal organisation and functioning..
- Party registration - C - Registration provides legal status under the election law framework..
13 Match the Following:
- Section 29A
- Section 29B
- Section 29C
- Election Symbols Order
- Political contributions
- Registration of political parties
- Disclosure of donations
- Symbols and party recognition
- Electoral rolls
- Section 29A
- Section 29B
- Section 29C
- Election Symbols Order
- Political contributions
- Registration of political parties
- Disclosure of donations
- Symbols and party recognition
- Electoral rolls
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | A | B | D |
| (B) | B | A | C | D |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | A | D | C | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Section 29A - B - It provides for registration of political parties..
- Section 29B - A - It deals with contributions to political parties..
- Section 29C - C - It concerns declaration of donations received..
- Election Symbols Order - D - It regulates recognition and election symbols..
14 Match the Following:
- Political equality
- Electoral competition
- Coalition government
- One-party dominance
- Government formed by cooperation of multiple parties
- Equal political status of citizens
- Competitive contest among political alternatives
- Long-term predominance of one party in electoral politics
- Absence of elections
- Political equality
- Electoral competition
- Coalition government
- One-party dominance
- Government formed by cooperation of multiple parties
- Equal political status of citizens
- Competitive contest among political alternatives
- Long-term predominance of one party in electoral politics
- Absence of elections
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | A | D |
| (B) | C | A | D | B |
| (C) | B | C | A | D |
| (D) | D | B | C | A |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Political equality - B - Democracy rests on equal political status of citizens..
- Electoral competition - C - It involves competition among political alternatives for electoral support..
- Coalition government - A - It is formed through cooperation among multiple parties..
- One-party dominance - D - It describes prolonged electoral predominance of one party..
15 Match the Following:
- Anti-defection
- Party whip
- Merger provision
- Disqualification
- Constitutional consequence of specified defection
- Party direction on legislative voting
- Protection available when statutory threshold is satisfied
- Constitutional mechanism to discourage political defection
- Method of electing the Speaker
- Anti-defection
- Party whip
- Merger provision
- Disqualification
- Constitutional consequence of specified defection
- Party direction on legislative voting
- Protection available when statutory threshold is satisfied
- Constitutional mechanism to discourage political defection
- Method of electing the Speaker
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | C | A |
| (B) | A | C | D | B |
| (C) | C | D | B | A |
| (D) | B | A | C | D |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Anti-defection - D - It constitutionally seeks to discourage defections..
- Party whip - B - It communicates the party's voting direction to legislators..
- Merger provision - C - It protects legislators when the constitutional merger condition is fulfilled..
- Disqualification - A - Specified defection can result in legislative disqualification..
16 Match the Following:
- Indian National Congress
- Bharatiya Janata Party
- Communist Party of India (Marxist)
- Bahujan Samaj Party
- National party recognised by ECI
- National party recognised by ECI
- National party recognised by ECI
- National party recognised by ECI
- Independent electoral group
- Indian National Congress
- Bharatiya Janata Party
- Communist Party of India (Marxist)
- Bahujan Samaj Party
- National party recognised by ECI
- National party recognised by ECI
- National party recognised by ECI
- National party recognised by ECI
- Independent electoral group
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | D | C | B | A |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Indian National Congress - A - It is recognised as a national political party..
- Bharatiya Janata Party - B - It is recognised as a national political party..
- Communist Party of India (Marxist) - C - It is recognised as a national political party..
- Bahujan Samaj Party - D - It is recognised as a national political party..
17 Match the Following:
- Party system
- Multi-party system
- Two-party system
- Single-party system
- Several parties compete and may form government
- Political competition primarily between two major parties
- Political organisation dominated by a single party
- Overall structure of political party competition
- Absence of political organisations
- Party system
- Multi-party system
- Two-party system
- Single-party system
- Several parties compete and may form government
- Political competition primarily between two major parties
- Political organisation dominated by a single party
- Overall structure of political party competition
- Absence of political organisations
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | D | A | B | C |
| (D) | C | B | A | D |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Party system - D - It describes the structure and pattern of party competition..
- Multi-party system - A - Multiple parties compete and may participate in government formation..
- Two-party system - B - Two major parties dominate electoral competition..
- Single-party system - C - A single party dominates political organisation and government..
18 Match the Following:
- Ideological aggregation
- Interest articulation
- Political recruitment
- Political socialisation
- Introducing citizens to political values and processes
- Recruiting and preparing political leaders
- Combining diverse interests into broader programmes
- Expressing social demands to the political system
- Counting votes after polling
- Ideological aggregation
- Interest articulation
- Political recruitment
- Political socialisation
- Introducing citizens to political values and processes
- Recruiting and preparing political leaders
- Combining diverse interests into broader programmes
- Expressing social demands to the political system
- Counting votes after polling
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | D | B | A |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | B | A | D | C |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Ideological aggregation - C - Parties combine diverse interests into broader policy programmes..
- Interest articulation - D - It expresses social demands within the political process..
- Political recruitment - B - Parties recruit and develop political leaders..
- Political socialisation - A - It transmits political values and orientations..
19 Match the Following:
- Election Commission of India
- Law Commission
- Parliament
- Supreme Court
- Interprets constitutional and electoral law
- Enacts election-related legislation
- Administers elections and recognises parties
- Examines legal reforms and electoral reform proposals
- Registers voters directly
- Election Commission of India
- Law Commission
- Parliament
- Supreme Court
- Interprets constitutional and electoral law
- Enacts election-related legislation
- Administers elections and recognises parties
- Examines legal reforms and electoral reform proposals
- Registers voters directly
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | D | B | C |
| (B) | C | B | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | C | B |
| (D) | C | D | B | A |
Correct Answer: (D)
- Election Commission of India - C - It administers elections and handles party recognition..
- Law Commission - D - It examines legal and electoral reform issues..
- Parliament - B - Parliament enacts election-related legislation..
- Supreme Court - A - It interprets constitutional and electoral law..
20 Match the Following:
- Political party registration
- Party recognition
- Symbol reservation
- Election expenditure
- Based on prescribed electoral performance
- Subject to election law and regulatory framework
- Governed by election symbols rules
- Governed by statutory provisions including RPA
- Determined by Parliament alone for every party
- Political party registration
- Party recognition
- Symbol reservation
- Election expenditure
- Based on prescribed electoral performance
- Subject to election law and regulatory framework
- Governed by election symbols rules
- Governed by statutory provisions including RPA
- Determined by Parliament alone for every party
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | C | B |
| (B) | B | A | C | D |
| (C) | A | C | D | B |
| (D) | C | D | B | A |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Political party registration - B - Registration is governed by the statutory election framework..
- Party recognition - A - Recognition depends on prescribed electoral performance..
- Symbol reservation - C - Reservation is governed by the Election Symbols Order..
- Election expenditure - D - Election expenditure is regulated under election law..
21 Match the Following:
- Recognition of a party as State party
- Recognition as National party
- Reserved symbol
- Common symbol for unrecognised party
- Can be available subject to ECI rules
- Requires fulfilment of national recognition criteria
- Requires fulfilment of State recognition criteria
- Associated with recognised party under symbol rules
- Automatically allotted to every registered party
- Recognition of a party as State party
- Recognition as National party
- Reserved symbol
- Common symbol for unrecognised party
- Can be available subject to ECI rules
- Requires fulfilment of national recognition criteria
- Requires fulfilment of State recognition criteria
- Associated with recognised party under symbol rules
- Automatically allotted to every registered party
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | D | A |
| (B) | D | A | C | B |
| (C) | C | B | D | A |
| (D) | A | D | B | C |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Recognition of a party as State party - C - It requires satisfaction of prescribed State-level criteria..
- Recognition as National party - B - It requires satisfaction of prescribed national criteria..
- Reserved symbol - D - It is associated with a recognised political party..
- Common symbol for unrecognised party - A - Such allocation is subject to applicable ECI rules..
22 Match the Following:
- Article 19(1)(a)
- Article 19(1)(c)
- Article 14
- Article 326
- Equality before law
- Freedom of speech and expression
- Adult suffrage
- Freedom to form associations or unions
- Election Commission
- Article 19(1)(a)
- Article 19(1)(c)
- Article 14
- Article 326
- Equality before law
- Freedom of speech and expression
- Adult suffrage
- Freedom to form associations or unions
- Election Commission
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | A | C |
| (B) | A | C | D | B |
| (C) | C | B | A | D |
| (D) | D | A | C | B |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Article 19(1)(a) - B - It protects freedom of speech and expression..
- Article 19(1)(c) - D - It protects the freedom to form associations or unions..
- Article 14 - A - It guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws..
- Article 326 - C - It provides for elections on the basis of adult suffrage..
23 Match the Following:
- Party in power
- Opposition party
- Ruling coalition
- Opposition alliance
- Group of parties supporting government
- Party or group not forming the government
- Alliance of parties opposing the government
- Party or coalition controlling government
- Election authority
- Party in power
- Opposition party
- Ruling coalition
- Opposition alliance
- Group of parties supporting government
- Party or group not forming the government
- Alliance of parties opposing the government
- Party or coalition controlling government
- Election authority
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | D | C |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | C | D | B | A |
| (D) | B | A | C | D |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Party in power - D - It is the party or coalition controlling the government..
- Opposition party - B - It does not form the government and scrutinises the executive..
- Ruling coalition - A - It comprises parties supporting the government..
- Opposition alliance - C - It comprises parties cooperating against the government..
24 Match the Following:
- Recognised National Party
- Recognised State Party
- Registered Party
- Unregistered political group
- Party without registration under Section 29A
- Recognised across the country under ECI criteria
- Registered but not recognised
- Recognised within a State/UT under ECI criteria
- Constitutional body
- Recognised National Party
- Recognised State Party
- Registered Party
- Unregistered political group
- Party without registration under Section 29A
- Recognised across the country under ECI criteria
- Registered but not recognised
- Recognised within a State/UT under ECI criteria
- Constitutional body
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | D | C | A | B |
| (C) | B | D | C | A |
| (D) | A | B | D | C |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Recognised National Party - B - It has national recognition under ECI criteria..
- Recognised State Party - D - It has recognition within a State or UT..
- Registered Party - C - Registration does not automatically confer recognised party status..
- Unregistered political group - A - It has not obtained registration under Section 29A..
25 Match the Following:
- Election Symbols Order, 1968
- Model Code of Conduct
- Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Representation of the People Act, 1950
- Conduct of elections and corrupt practices
- Allocation and reservation of symbols
- Electoral rolls and allocation of seats
- Guidelines for parties and candidates during elections
- Constitutional amendments
- Election Symbols Order, 1968
- Model Code of Conduct
- Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Representation of the People Act, 1950
- Conduct of elections and corrupt practices
- Allocation and reservation of symbols
- Electoral rolls and allocation of seats
- Guidelines for parties and candidates during elections
- Constitutional amendments
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | A | C |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | D | C | B | A |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Election Symbols Order, 1968 - B - It regulates allocation and reservation of election symbols..
- Model Code of Conduct - D - It provides election-period conduct guidelines..
- Representation of the People Act, 1951 - A - It regulates conduct of elections and corrupt practices..
- Representation of the People Act, 1950 - C - It primarily concerns electoral rolls and allocation of seats..
26 Match the Following:
- Coalition politics
- Anti-defection law
- Party discipline
- Floor coordination
- Coordination among legislators during House proceedings
- Government formed by multiple parties
- Mechanism discouraging legislators from defecting
- Adherence of members to party decisions
- Direct election of Prime Minister
- Coalition politics
- Anti-defection law
- Party discipline
- Floor coordination
- Coordination among legislators during House proceedings
- Government formed by multiple parties
- Mechanism discouraging legislators from defecting
- Adherence of members to party decisions
- Direct election of Prime Minister
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | B | C | D | A |
| (D) | A | D | C | B |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Coalition politics - B - Coalition politics involves government formation by multiple parties..
- Anti-defection law - C - It seeks to discourage legislative defections..
- Party discipline - D - It requires members to adhere to party decisions..
- Floor coordination - A - It involves coordination of legislators in the House..
27 Match the Following:
- Constitutional recognition of political association
- Statutory registration of political parties
- ECI recognition
- Election symbol
- Election Symbols Order
- Article 19(1)(c)
- Section 29A of RPA 1951
- Prescribed electoral performance criteria
- Article 280
- Constitutional recognition of political association
- Statutory registration of political parties
- ECI recognition
- Election symbol
- Election Symbols Order
- Article 19(1)(c)
- Section 29A of RPA 1951
- Prescribed electoral performance criteria
- Article 280
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | B | C | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | C | B |
| (D) | C | B | A | D |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Constitutional recognition of political association - B - Article 19(1)(c) protects the freedom to form associations..
- Statutory registration of political parties - C - Section 29A of the RPA 1951 deals with registration..
- ECI recognition - D - Recognition depends on prescribed electoral performance criteria..
- Election symbol - A - Symbols are governed by the Election Symbols Order..
28 Match the Following:
- Political party registration application
- Party constitution
- Party office-bearers
- Party name
- Identifies the proposed organisation
- Forms part of registration-related organisational information
- Sets out internal organisational rules
- Identifies persons responsible for party affairs
- Determines constitutional amendments
- Political party registration application
- Party constitution
- Party office-bearers
- Party name
- Identifies the proposed organisation
- Forms part of registration-related organisational information
- Sets out internal organisational rules
- Identifies persons responsible for party affairs
- Determines constitutional amendments
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | A | D | B | C |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | D | B | A | C |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Political party registration application - B - The application contains prescribed organisational information..
- Party constitution - C - It establishes internal organisational rules..
- Party office-bearers - D - They are persons responsible for organisational affairs..
- Party name - A - It identifies the political organisation seeking registration..
29 Match the Following:
- Political party
- Pressure group
- Interest group
- Non-governmental organisation
- Seeks to influence public policy without necessarily contesting elections
- Organised group pursuing specific interests
- Voluntary organisation working on social or public causes
- Organisation seeking political power through elections
- Constitutional authority conducting elections
- Political party
- Pressure group
- Interest group
- Non-governmental organisation
- Seeks to influence public policy without necessarily contesting elections
- Organised group pursuing specific interests
- Voluntary organisation working on social or public causes
- Organisation seeking political power through elections
- Constitutional authority conducting elections
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | C | D | A | B |
| (C) | D | A | B | C |
| (D) | B | C | D | A |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Political party - D - A political party seeks political power through elections..
- Pressure group - A - It seeks to influence policy without necessarily seeking governmental power..
- Interest group - B - It represents and advances particular interests..
- Non-governmental organisation - C - It is a voluntary organisation working on social or public causes..
30 Match the Following:
- Party manifesto
- Election campaign
- Party organisation
- Party ideology
- Beliefs and principles guiding political action
- Formal statement of policy commitments
- Organisational machinery at different levels
- Activities seeking electoral support
- Judicial review of legislation
- Party manifesto
- Election campaign
- Party organisation
- Party ideology
- Beliefs and principles guiding political action
- Formal statement of policy commitments
- Organisational machinery at different levels
- Activities seeking electoral support
- Judicial review of legislation
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | A | C | D | B |
| (C) | D | B | A | C |
| (D) | C | A | B | D |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Party manifesto - B - It states policy and programme commitments..
- Election campaign - D - It consists of activities intended to secure electoral support..
- Party organisation - C - It includes the party's organisational machinery..
- Party ideology - A - It comprises principles and beliefs guiding political action..
31 Match the Following:
- Section 29A(1)
- Section 29A(5)
- Election Symbols Order
- Article 324
- ECI's constitutional superintendence over elections
- Application for registration of political parties
- Declaration of allegiance to Constitution and principles
- Reservation and allotment of symbols
- Appointment of Governors
- Section 29A(1)
- Section 29A(5)
- Election Symbols Order
- Article 324
- ECI's constitutional superintendence over elections
- Application for registration of political parties
- Declaration of allegiance to Constitution and principles
- Reservation and allotment of symbols
- Appointment of Governors
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | D | A |
| (B) | B | C | D | A |
| (C) | A | D | B | C |
| (D) | D | A | C | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Section 29A(1) - B - It provides the statutory basis for applying for party registration..
- Section 29A(5) - C - It requires specified commitments regarding the Constitution and its principles..
- Election Symbols Order - D - It governs reservation and allotment of symbols..
- Article 324 - A - It establishes the ECI's constitutional election authority..
32 Match the Following:
- National party criterion based on votes
- National party criterion based on seats
- National party criterion based on State recognition
- State party criterion based on votes
- Recognition as State party in specified number of States
- Minimum prescribed vote percentage with specified seats
- Prescribed proportion of seats in specified States
- Prescribed vote share within a State with specified seat condition
- One hundred per cent turnout
- National party criterion based on votes
- National party criterion based on seats
- National party criterion based on State recognition
- State party criterion based on votes
- Recognition as State party in specified number of States
- Minimum prescribed vote percentage with specified seats
- Prescribed proportion of seats in specified States
- Prescribed vote share within a State with specified seat condition
- One hundred per cent turnout
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | A | D |
| (B) | C | B | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | C | B |
| (D) | A | D | B | C |
Correct Answer: (A)
- National party criterion based on votes - B - The criterion combines prescribed vote share with specified seat conditions..
- National party criterion based on seats - C - It uses a prescribed proportion of Lok Sabha seats from specified States..
- National party criterion based on State recognition - A - It requires State-party recognition in the prescribed number of States..
- State party criterion based on votes - D - It uses prescribed vote share and seat conditions within the State..
33 Match the Following:
- Election Commission recognition
- Party symbol
- Political party constitution
- Party accounts
- Internal rules and organisational structure
- Financial records subject to applicable requirements
- Recognition based on electoral performance
- Identifier used by voters in elections
- Judicial warrant
- Election Commission recognition
- Party symbol
- Political party constitution
- Party accounts
- Internal rules and organisational structure
- Financial records subject to applicable requirements
- Recognition based on electoral performance
- Identifier used by voters in elections
- Judicial warrant
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | C | A | B |
| (B) | C | D | A | B |
| (C) | A | B | D | C |
| (D) | B | A | C | D |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Election Commission recognition - C - Recognition is based on prescribed electoral performance..
- Party symbol - D - It provides an election identifier for voters..
- Political party constitution - A - It defines internal rules and organisational structure..
- Party accounts - B - They record the party's finances subject to applicable requirements..
34 Match the Following:
- Party candidate
- Independent candidate
- Proposer requirement
- Recognised party candidate
- May receive nomination benefits under election rules
- Contests without party affiliation
- Nomination requires prescribed proposer support
- Candidate set up by a political party
- Automatically elected without polling
- Party candidate
- Independent candidate
- Proposer requirement
- Recognised party candidate
- May receive nomination benefits under election rules
- Contests without party affiliation
- Nomination requires prescribed proposer support
- Candidate set up by a political party
- Automatically elected without polling
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | C | A |
| (B) | A | D | B | C |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | B | C | A | D |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Party candidate - D - A party candidate is set up by a political party..
- Independent candidate - B - An independent contests without party affiliation..
- Proposer requirement - C - Election law prescribes proposer requirements for nominations..
- Recognised party candidate - A - Recognised-party candidates receive specified nomination-related benefits under election rules..
35 Match the Following:
- Party merger under Tenth Schedule
- Voluntary resignation from party
- Abstention contrary to party direction
- Independent member joining a party
- May attract disqualification under prescribed conditions
- Can attract disqualification under Tenth Schedule
- Can attract disqualification if joined after election
- Requires two-thirds support for merger protection
- Requires approval of the Election Commission before voting
- Party merger under Tenth Schedule
- Voluntary resignation from party
- Abstention contrary to party direction
- Independent member joining a party
- May attract disqualification under prescribed conditions
- Can attract disqualification under Tenth Schedule
- Can attract disqualification if joined after election
- Requires two-thirds support for merger protection
- Requires approval of the Election Commission before voting
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | B | A | C |
| (B) | D | B | A | C |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | A | D | C | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Party merger under Tenth Schedule - D - The merger exception requires support of at least two-thirds of the legislature party..
- Voluntary resignation from party - B - Voluntarily giving up party membership can attract disqualification..
- Abstention contrary to party direction - A - Defying a valid party direction can attract disqualification subject to conditions..
- Independent member joining a party - C - An elected independent member joining a party can attract disqualification..
36 Match the Following:
- Nominated member joining a party within six months
- Nominated member joining after six months
- Independent elected member joining a party
- Party member voting against whip
- May attract disqualification
- Permitted under Tenth Schedule
- Can attract disqualification
- Can attract disqualification subject to conditions
- Always exempt from anti-defection provisions
- Nominated member joining a party within six months
- Nominated member joining after six months
- Independent elected member joining a party
- Party member voting against whip
- May attract disqualification
- Permitted under Tenth Schedule
- Can attract disqualification
- Can attract disqualification subject to conditions
- Always exempt from anti-defection provisions
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | A | C | D |
| (B) | A | B | D | C |
| (C) | D | C | A | B |
| (D) | C | D | B | A |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Nominated member joining a party within six months - B - The Tenth Schedule permits such joining within six months of taking the seat..
- Nominated member joining after six months - A - Joining after six months can attract disqualification..
- Independent elected member joining a party - C - Such post-election joining can attract disqualification..
- Party member voting against whip - D - Defiance of a party direction can attract disqualification subject to conditions..
37 Match the Following:
- 91st Amendment
- 52nd Amendment
- 61st Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- Reduced voting age to 18 years
- Introduced anti-defection law
- Limited Council of Ministers' size
- Reduced Lok Sabha and Assembly voting age
- Added Fundamental Duties
- 91st Amendment
- 52nd Amendment
- 61st Amendment
- 42nd Amendment
- Reduced voting age to 18 years
- Introduced anti-defection law
- Limited Council of Ministers' size
- Reduced Lok Sabha and Assembly voting age
- Added Fundamental Duties
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | A | E |
| (B) | C | B | A | E |
| (C) | A | D | C | B |
| (D) | D | C | B | A |
Correct Answer: (B)
- 91st Amendment - C - It limited the size of the Council of Ministers and strengthened anti-defection provisions..
- 52nd Amendment - B - It introduced the anti-defection law..
- 61st Amendment - A - It reduced the voting age from 21 to 18..
- 42nd Amendment - E - It added Fundamental Duties and made several major constitutional changes..
38 Match the Following:
- National party
- State party
- Recognised party
- Registered party
- Party registered under Section 29A
- Party satisfying national recognition criteria
- Party satisfying State recognition criteria
- Party recognised by ECI as national or State party
- Party automatically entitled to Rajya Sabha seats
- National party
- State party
- Recognised party
- Registered party
- Party registered under Section 29A
- Party satisfying national recognition criteria
- Party satisfying State recognition criteria
- Party recognised by ECI as national or State party
- Party automatically entitled to Rajya Sabha seats
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | C | B | A | D |
| (C) | D | A | C | B |
| (D) | A | D | B | C |
Correct Answer: (A)
- National party - B - It satisfies the prescribed national recognition criteria..
- State party - C - It satisfies the prescribed State-level recognition criteria..
- Recognised party - D - It is recognised as a national or State party by the ECI..
- Registered party - A - It is registered under Section 29A of the RPA 1951..
39 Match the Following:
- Political party and federalism
- Regional party
- National party
- Coalition
- Can articulate State-specific interests
- Can contribute to national-level policy competition
- Can facilitate accommodation of regional interests
- Can strengthen representative competition
- Eliminates State-level political demands
- Political party and federalism
- Regional party
- National party
- Coalition
- Can articulate State-specific interests
- Can contribute to national-level policy competition
- Can facilitate accommodation of regional interests
- Can strengthen representative competition
- Eliminates State-level political demands
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | D | A | B | C |
| (B) | C | B | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | B | C |
| (D) | B | C | A | D |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Political party and federalism - D - Parties can strengthen representative political competition within federal democracy..
- Regional party - A - Regional parties often articulate State-specific interests..
- National party - B - National parties compete and formulate policies at the national level..
- Coalition - C - Coalitions can accommodate diverse regional and political interests..
40 Match the Following:
- Political representation
- Political participation
- Political accountability
- Political mobilisation
- Making elected representatives answerable to citizens
- Encouraging citizens to engage in politics
- Presenting citizens' interests through representatives
- Organising citizens for political action
- Appointment of judges
- Political representation
- Political participation
- Political accountability
- Political mobilisation
- Making elected representatives answerable to citizens
- Encouraging citizens to engage in politics
- Presenting citizens' interests through representatives
- Organising citizens for political action
- Appointment of judges
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | A | D |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | D | C | B | A |
| (D) | B | A | D | C |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Political representation - C - Representatives articulate citizens' interests in institutions..
- Political participation - B - It involves citizens engaging in political processes..
- Political accountability - A - It makes representatives answerable for their actions..
- Political mobilisation - D - It organises citizens for political action..
41 Match the Following:
- Party symbol dispute
- Party split
- Party merger
- Party recognition dispute
- May be examined under Election Symbols Order
- May involve determination of competing organisational claims
- Can affect applicability of Tenth Schedule merger exception
- Can involve prescribed recognition criteria
- Automatically decided by Parliament
- Party symbol dispute
- Party split
- Party merger
- Party recognition dispute
- May be examined under Election Symbols Order
- May involve determination of competing organisational claims
- Can affect applicability of Tenth Schedule merger exception
- Can involve prescribed recognition criteria
- Automatically decided by Parliament
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | A | B | C | D |
| (C) | D | C | B | A |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Party symbol dispute - A - Symbol disputes can be addressed under the Election Symbols Order..
- Party split - B - Competing organisational claims may arise after a party split..
- Party merger - C - A qualifying merger has relevance under the Tenth Schedule..
- Party recognition dispute - D - Recognition depends on prescribed electoral criteria..
42 Match the Following:
- Election Commission's party recognition
- Supreme Court's electoral jurisdiction
- High Court election petition jurisdiction
- Parliamentary legislation
- Provides statutory framework for elections
- Provides judicial interpretation of election law
- Deals with party recognition under election rules
- Deals with election petitions as prescribed by law
- Conducts Parliament sessions
- Election Commission's party recognition
- Supreme Court's electoral jurisdiction
- High Court election petition jurisdiction
- Parliamentary legislation
- Provides statutory framework for elections
- Provides judicial interpretation of election law
- Deals with party recognition under election rules
- Deals with election petitions as prescribed by law
- Conducts Parliament sessions
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | D | A |
| (B) | A | D | C | B |
| (C) | C | B | D | A |
| (D) | D | A | B | C |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Election Commission's party recognition - C - The ECI handles recognition under the election-symbol framework..
- Supreme Court's electoral jurisdiction - B - The Supreme Court interprets constitutional and electoral law..
- High Court election petition jurisdiction - D - Election petitions are adjudicated by High Courts under prescribed law..
- Parliamentary legislation - A - Parliament provides the statutory election framework..
43 Match the Following:
- Section 8, RPA 1951
- Section 8A, RPA 1951
- Section 10A, RPA 1951
- Section 11A, RPA 1951
- Disqualification for failure to lodge election expense account
- Disqualification on conviction for certain offences
- Disqualification in case of corrupt practices
- Disqualification relating to government contracts
- Registration of political parties
- Section 8, RPA 1951
- Section 8A, RPA 1951
- Section 10A, RPA 1951
- Section 11A, RPA 1951
- Disqualification for failure to lodge election expense account
- Disqualification on conviction for certain offences
- Disqualification in case of corrupt practices
- Disqualification relating to government contracts
- Registration of political parties
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | A | D |
| (B) | D | B | C | A |
| (C) | A | D | B | C |
| (D) | C | A | D | B |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Section 8, RPA 1951 - B - It deals with disqualification on conviction for specified offences..
- Section 8A, RPA 1951 - C - It concerns disqualification for corrupt practices..
- Section 10A, RPA 1951 - A - It concerns failure to lodge election expense accounts..
- Section 11A, RPA 1951 - D - It includes specified disqualifications relating to government contracts..
44 Match the Following:
- Political financing
- Electoral bonds
- Corporate donations
- Foreign contribution
- Subject to the Foreign Contribution Regulation framework
- Financial support provided to political parties
- Regulated under applicable company and election laws
- Electoral funding instrument whose legal framework was struck down by Supreme Court in 2024
- Compulsory cash-only contribution
- Political financing
- Electoral bonds
- Corporate donations
- Foreign contribution
- Subject to the Foreign Contribution Regulation framework
- Financial support provided to political parties
- Regulated under applicable company and election laws
- Electoral funding instrument whose legal framework was struck down by Supreme Court in 2024
- Compulsory cash-only contribution
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | D | C | A |
| (B) | B | D | C | A |
| (C) | C | A | D | B |
| (D) | D | B | A | C |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Political financing - B - It refers broadly to financial support provided to political parties and campaigns..
- Electoral bonds - D - The Supreme Court struck down the electoral bonds scheme in 2024..
- Corporate donations - C - Corporate political contributions are regulated by applicable law..
- Foreign contribution - A - Foreign contributions are subject to the applicable FCRA framework..
45 Match the Following:
- Transparency in political funding
- Internal party democracy
- Criminalisation of politics
- Women in political parties
- Greater participation and representation of women
- Disclosure and accountability of party finances
- Democratic functioning within party organisations
- Concern regarding candidates with criminal antecedents
- Elimination of all political competition
- Transparency in political funding
- Internal party democracy
- Criminalisation of politics
- Women in political parties
- Greater participation and representation of women
- Disclosure and accountability of party finances
- Democratic functioning within party organisations
- Concern regarding candidates with criminal antecedents
- Elimination of all political competition
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | A | D | B | C |
| (C) | C | B | A | D |
| (D) | D | A | C | B |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Transparency in political funding - B - It focuses on disclosure and accountability of political finances..
- Internal party democracy - C - It concerns democratic functioning within political organisations..
- Criminalisation of politics - D - It concerns the presence of candidates with criminal antecedents..
- Women in political parties - A - It concerns women's political participation and representation..
46 Match the Following:
- Political party reform
- Electoral reform
- Campaign finance reform
- Anti-defection reform
- Improving rules concerning political defections
- Improving political party organisation and transparency
- Improving electoral processes and representation
- Improving regulation of election-related finances
- Changing the basic structure of Constitution
- Political party reform
- Electoral reform
- Campaign finance reform
- Anti-defection reform
- Improving rules concerning political defections
- Improving political party organisation and transparency
- Improving electoral processes and representation
- Improving regulation of election-related finances
- Changing the basic structure of Constitution
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | D | A |
| (B) | A | C | B | D |
| (C) | B | C | D | A |
| (D) | D | A | C | B |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Political party reform - B - It seeks better organisation, transparency and internal functioning of parties..
- Electoral reform - C - It seeks improvements in electoral processes and representation..
- Campaign finance reform - D - It concerns regulation and transparency of election-related finances..
- Anti-defection reform - A - It concerns improving rules governing political defections..
47 Match the Following:
- Kihoto Hollohan case
- Ravi S. Naik case
- Keisham Meghachandra Singh case
- Rajendra Singh Rana case
- Judicial review of Speaker's Tenth Schedule decision
- Meaning of voluntarily giving up party membership
- Need for prompt decision on disqualification petitions
- Defection-related judicial interpretation
- Recognition of national parties
- Kihoto Hollohan case
- Ravi S. Naik case
- Keisham Meghachandra Singh case
- Rajendra Singh Rana case
- Judicial review of Speaker's Tenth Schedule decision
- Meaning of voluntarily giving up party membership
- Need for prompt decision on disqualification petitions
- Defection-related judicial interpretation
- Recognition of national parties
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | B | C | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | B | C |
| (D) | C | D | A | B |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Kihoto Hollohan case - A - The Supreme Court recognised judicial review of Tenth Schedule decisions..
- Ravi S. Naik case - B - The Court interpreted voluntarily giving up party membership broadly..
- Keisham Meghachandra Singh case - C - The Court emphasised prompt disposal of disqualification petitions..
- Rajendra Singh Rana case - D - The case dealt with important questions concerning legislative defection..
48 Match the Following:
- Political party and democracy
- Political party and representation
- Political party and accountability
- Political party and governance
- Helps translate electoral mandates into government programmes
- Provides organised alternatives to voters
- Connects citizens and elected institutions
- Can subject governments to political scrutiny
- Replaces constitutional institutions
- Political party and democracy
- Political party and representation
- Political party and accountability
- Political party and governance
- Helps translate electoral mandates into government programmes
- Provides organised alternatives to voters
- Connects citizens and elected institutions
- Can subject governments to political scrutiny
- Replaces constitutional institutions
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | B | C | D | A |
| (B) | B | C | D | A |
| (C) | D | A | B | C |
| (D) | A | D | C | B |
Correct Answer: (B)
- Political party and democracy - B - Parties provide organised political alternatives to voters..
- Political party and representation - C - Parties connect citizens with representative institutions..
- Political party and accountability - D - Parties can scrutinise governments and offer alternatives..
- Political party and governance - A - Parties help translate electoral mandates into government programmes..
49 Match the Following:
- Political party funding disclosure
- Candidate criminal antecedents
- Internal elections
- Party manifesto accountability
- Transparency regarding political finances
- Disclosure obligations concerning candidates
- Democratic organisational functioning
- Debate concerning implementation of electoral promises
- Appointment of Election Commissioners
- Political party funding disclosure
- Candidate criminal antecedents
- Internal elections
- Party manifesto accountability
- Transparency regarding political finances
- Disclosure obligations concerning candidates
- Democratic organisational functioning
- Debate concerning implementation of electoral promises
- Appointment of Election Commissioners
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | A | B | C | D |
| (B) | D | A | B | C |
| (C) | C | D | A | B |
| (D) | B | C | D | A |
Correct Answer: (A)
- Political party funding disclosure - A - It promotes transparency regarding political finances..
- Candidate criminal antecedents - B - Election law and judicial directions require disclosure of relevant antecedents..
- Internal elections - C - They support democratic organisational functioning..
- Party manifesto accountability - D - It concerns public debate over implementation of electoral promises..
50 Match the Following:
- Political party registration
- Political party recognition
- Anti-defection
- Election symbol
- Election Symbols Order, 1968
- Section 29A of Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Tenth Schedule of the Constitution
- Prescribed electoral performance criteria
- Article 280
- Political party registration
- Political party recognition
- Anti-defection
- Election symbol
- Election Symbols Order, 1968
- Section 29A of Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Tenth Schedule of the Constitution
- Prescribed electoral performance criteria
- Article 280
| Options | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | C | B | D | A |
| (B) | D | A | C | B |
| (C) | B | D | C | A |
| (D) | A | C | B | D |
Correct Answer: (C)
- Political party registration - B - Section 29A of the RPA 1951 provides for registration..
- Political party recognition - D - Recognition depends on prescribed electoral performance criteria..
- Anti-defection - C - The Tenth Schedule contains the anti-defection provisions..
- Election symbol - A - The Election Symbols Order, 1968 governs allocation and reservation of symbols..
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