Polity Chapter 27 MCQs - Centre-State Relations (केंद्र-राज्य संबंध)

Polity Chapter 27 MCQs - Centre-State Relations (केंद्र-राज्य संबंध)

1 Which Part of the Constitution primarily deals with relations between the Union and the States?

संविधान का कौन-सा भाग मुख्यतः संघ और राज्यों के बीच संबंधों से संबंधित है?

1. Part X

   भाग X

2. Part XI

   भाग XI

3. Part XII

   भाग XII

4. Part XIII

   भाग XIII

Correct Answer: (2) Part XI

Part XI of the Constitution, comprising Articles 245 to 263, deals primarily with legislative and administrative relations between the Union and the States.

2 Which of the following Articles defines the territorial extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अनुच्छेद संसद और राज्य विधानमंडलों द्वारा बनाए गए कानूनों की क्षेत्रीय सीमा निर्धारित करता है?

1. Article 243

   अनुच्छेद 243

2. Article 245

   अनुच्छेद 245

3. Article 246

   अनुच्छेद 246

4. Article 248

   अनुच्छेद 248

Correct Answer: (2) Article 245

Article 245 deals with the territorial extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures. Parliament may make laws for the whole or any part of India, while a State Legislature may make laws for the whole or any part of that State.

3 Which statement regarding a law made by Parliament having extra-territorial operation is correct?

संसद द्वारा बनाए गए कानून के अतिरिक्त-क्षेत्रीय प्रभाव के संबंध में कौन-सा कथन सही है?

1. Parliament can never make an extra-territorial law

   संसद कभी भी अतिरिक्त-क्षेत्रीय कानून नहीं बना सकती

2. Only State Legislatures can make extra-territorial laws

   केवल राज्य विधानमंडल अतिरिक्त-क्षेत्रीय कानून बना सकते हैं

3. A law of Parliament is not invalid merely because it has extra-territorial operation

   संसद का कानून केवल अतिरिक्त-क्षेत्रीय प्रभाव होने के कारण अमान्य नहीं होता

4. Such a law requires prior approval of all State Legislatures

   ऐसे कानून के लिए सभी राज्य विधानमंडलों की पूर्व स्वीकृति आवश्यक है

Correct Answer: (3) A law of Parliament is not invalid merely because it has extra-territorial operation

Article 245 expressly provides that no law made by Parliament shall be deemed invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation.

4 The distribution of legislative subjects between the Union and States is primarily provided in which Schedule?

संघ और राज्यों के बीच विधायी विषयों का वितरण मुख्यतः किस अनुसूची में किया गया है?

1. Fifth Schedule

   पाँचवीं अनुसूची

2. Sixth Schedule

   छठी अनुसूची

3. Seventh Schedule

   सातवीं अनुसूची

4. Ninth Schedule

   नौवीं अनुसूची

Correct Answer: (3) Seventh Schedule

The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List and Concurrent List, forming the constitutional basis of legislative distribution between the Union and the States.

5 Under Article 246, Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to matters in the:

अनुच्छेद 246 के तहत संसद को किस सूची के विषयों पर कानून बनाने की अनन्य शक्ति प्राप्त है?

1. State List

   राज्य सूची

2. Concurrent List

   समवर्ती सूची

3. Union List

   संघ सूची

4. Local List

   स्थानीय सूची

Correct Answer: (3) Union List

Article 246(1) gives Parliament exclusive power to make laws with respect to matters enumerated in the Union List in the Seventh Schedule.

6 With respect to matters in the Concurrent List, legislative power is vested in:

समवर्ती सूची के विषयों के संबंध में विधायी शक्ति किसमें निहित है?

1. Only Parliament

   केवल संसद में

2. Only State Legislatures

   केवल राज्य विधानमंडलों में

3. Both Parliament and State Legislatures

   संसद और राज्य विधानमंडल दोनों में

4. Only the President

   केवल राष्ट्रपति में

Correct Answer: (3) Both Parliament and State Legislatures

Under Article 246(2), both Parliament and State Legislatures have power to make laws with respect to matters enumerated in the Concurrent List.

7 Which provision deals with the residuary legislative powers of Parliament?

संसद की अवशिष्ट विधायी शक्तियों से संबंधित प्रावधान कौन-सा है?

1. Article 246

   अनुच्छेद 246

2. Article 248

   अनुच्छेद 248

3. Article 249

   अनुच्छेद 249

4. Article 250

   अनुच्छेद 250

Correct Answer: (2) Article 248

Article 248 gives Parliament exclusive power to make laws with respect to matters not enumerated in the Concurrent or State Lists. This includes residuary taxation powers.

8 In India, residuary powers of legislation are vested in the:

भारत में अवशिष्ट विधायी शक्तियाँ किसमें निहित हैं?

1. States

   राज्यों में

2. President

   राष्ट्रपति में

3. Supreme Court

   सर्वोच्च न्यायालय में

4. Parliament

   संसद में

Correct Answer: (4) Parliament

Unlike some federations where residuary powers belong to the States, the Indian Constitution vests residuary legislative powers in Parliament under Article 248.

9 Parliament can legislate on a matter in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by:

राष्ट्रीय हित में संसद राज्य सूची के किसी विषय पर कानून बना सकती है, यदि इस संबंध में प्रस्ताव किसके द्वारा पारित किया जाए?

1. Lok Sabha by simple majority

   लोकसभा द्वारा साधारण बहुमत से

2. Both Houses by simple majority

   दोनों सदनों द्वारा साधारण बहुमत से

3. Rajya Sabha by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting

   राज्यसभा द्वारा उपस्थित और मतदान करने वाले सदस्यों के दो-तिहाई बहुमत से

4. President by ordinance

   राष्ट्रपति द्वारा अध्यादेश से

Correct Answer: (3) Rajya Sabha by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting

Under Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting that it is necessary in the national interest, Parliament can legislate on a State List matter.

10 A resolution under Article 249 authorising Parliament to legislate on a State List matter remains in force for:

अनुच्छेद 249 के तहत संसद को राज्य सूची के विषय पर कानून बनाने की अनुमति देने वाला प्रस्ताव कितने समय तक प्रभावी रहता है?

1. Six months

   छह महीने

2. One year

   एक वर्ष

3. Three years

   तीन वर्ष

4. Until Parliament dissolves

   संसद के भंग होने तक

Correct Answer: (2) One year

An Article 249 resolution remains in force for a period not exceeding one year. It may be renewed by the Rajya Sabha, but each renewal cannot exceed one year.

11 Parliament can legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency under:

राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल के दौरान संसद राज्य सूची के विषयों पर किस अनुच्छेद के तहत कानून बना सकती है?

1. Article 249

   अनुच्छेद 249

2. Article 250

   अनुच्छेद 250

3. Article 252

   अनुच्छेद 252

4. Article 253

   अनुच्छेद 253

Correct Answer: (2) Article 250

During the operation of a Proclamation of Emergency, Article 250 empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India with respect to any matter in the State List.

12 A law made by Parliament under Article 250 on a State List matter ceases to have effect:

अनुच्छेद 250 के तहत राज्य सूची के विषय पर संसद द्वारा बनाया गया कानून कब प्रभावहीन हो जाता है?

1. Immediately when Emergency is proclaimed

   आपातकाल घोषित होते ही

2. Six months after the Emergency ceases to operate

   आपातकाल समाप्त होने के छह महीने बाद

3. One year after Emergency ceases

   आपातकाल समाप्त होने के एक वर्ष बाद

4. Only when repealed by the State Legislature

   केवल राज्य विधानमंडल द्वारा निरस्त किए जाने पर

Correct Answer: (2) Six months after the Emergency ceases to operate

A law made by Parliament under Article 250 continues to have effect for a period of six months after the Proclamation of Emergency ceases to operate, unless earlier repealed or otherwise terminated.

13 Parliament may legislate for two or more States on a State List matter when the concerned State Legislatures pass resolutions requesting Parliament to do so. This is provided under:

जब दो या अधिक राज्यों के विधानमंडल संसद से राज्य सूची के किसी विषय पर कानून बनाने का अनुरोध करते हुए प्रस्ताव पारित करते हैं, तो यह प्रावधान किस अनुच्छेद में है?

1. Article 249

   अनुच्छेद 249

2. Article 250

   अनुच्छेद 250

3. Article 252

   अनुच्छेद 252

4. Article 254

   अनुच्छेद 254

Correct Answer: (3) Article 252

Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate on a State List matter for two or more States when those State Legislatures pass resolutions requesting such legislation.

14 Once Parliament makes a law under Article 252, amendment or repeal of that law can generally be done by:

अनुच्छेद 252 के तहत संसद द्वारा कानून बनाए जाने के बाद उस कानून में संशोधन या उसे निरस्त सामान्यतः कौन कर सकता है?

1. The concerned State Legislatures independently

   संबंधित राज्य विधानमंडल स्वतंत्र रूप से

2. President by ordinance only

   केवल राष्ट्रपति अध्यादेश द्वारा

3. Parliament

   संसद

4. Supreme Court

   सर्वोच्च न्यायालय

Correct Answer: (3) Parliament

Under Article 252, a law enacted by Parliament pursuant to resolutions of State Legislatures can subsequently be amended or repealed only by Parliament and not by the individual State Legislatures.

15 Parliament's power to make laws for implementing international treaties and agreements is provided under:

अंतरराष्ट्रीय संधियों और समझौतों को लागू करने के लिए संसद की कानून बनाने की शक्ति किस अनुच्छेद में है?

1. Article 250

   अनुच्छेद 250

2. Article 252

   अनुच्छेद 252

3. Article 253

   अनुच्छेद 253

4. Article 256

   अनुच्छेद 256

Correct Answer: (3) Article 253

Article 253 empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India for implementing treaties, agreements or conventions with other countries or decisions made at international conferences or bodies.

16 In case of inconsistency between a Parliamentary law and a State law on a Concurrent List subject, the general rule is contained in:

समवर्ती सूची के विषय पर संसद के कानून और राज्य के कानून में असंगति होने पर सामान्य नियम किस अनुच्छेद में है?

1. Article 251

   अनुच्छेद 251

2. Article 252

   अनुच्छेद 252

3. Article 254

   अनुच्छेद 254

4. Article 256

   अनुच्छेद 256

Correct Answer: (3) Article 254

Article 254 provides the doctrine of repugnancy. Generally, where a State law is inconsistent with a Parliamentary law on a Concurrent List matter, the Parliamentary law prevails and the State law is void to the extent of repugnancy.

17 A State law on a Concurrent List matter that has received Presidential assent can prevail over an earlier Parliamentary law in that State. However, Parliament can subsequently:

राष्ट्रपति की स्वीकृति प्राप्त राज्य कानून, समवर्ती सूची के विषय पर उस राज्य में पहले के संसद कानून पर प्रभावी हो सकता है। हालांकि संसद बाद में क्या कर सकती है?

1. It cannot affect the State law under any circumstances

   वह किसी भी परिस्थिति में राज्य कानून को प्रभावित नहीं कर सकती

2. Only the Governor can repeal it

   केवल राज्यपाल इसे निरस्त कर सकता है

3. Enact a later law overriding or altering the State law

   बाद में कानून बनाकर राज्य कानून को अधिरोहित या परिवर्तित कर सकती है

4. Only the Supreme Court can repeal it

   केवल सर्वोच्च न्यायालय इसे निरस्त कर सकता है

Correct Answer: (3) Enact a later law overriding or altering the State law

Under the proviso to Article 254(2), Parliament retains the power to enact legislation on the same matter and thereby override the State law even if the State law has received Presidential assent.

18 Which Article deals with the obligation of States and the Union to comply with laws made by Parliament?

कौन-सा अनुच्छेद राज्यों और संघ को संसद द्वारा बनाए गए कानूनों के अनुपालन के दायित्व से संबंधित है?

1. Article 254

   अनुच्छेद 254

2. Article 256

   अनुच्छेद 256

3. Article 257

   अनुच्छेद 257

4. Article 258

   अनुच्छेद 258

Correct Answer: (2) Article 256

Article 256 requires the executive power of every State to be exercised so as to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament and existing laws applicable in that State. The Union may give directions to a State for this purpose.

19 Under Article 257, the executive power of a State must be exercised so as not to:

अनुच्छेद 257 के तहत राज्य की कार्यपालिका शक्ति का प्रयोग इस प्रकार नहीं किया जाना चाहिए कि:

1. Promote local government

   स्थानीय शासन को बढ़ावा मिले

2. Impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union

   संघ की कार्यपालिका शक्ति के प्रयोग में बाधा या प्रतिकूल प्रभाव पड़े

3. Increase State revenue

   राज्य का राजस्व बढ़े

4. Promote State legislation

   राज्य के कानून को बढ़ावा मिले

Correct Answer: (2) Impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union

Article 257 requires that the executive power of every State be exercised so as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union.

20 Which of the following is an example of a direction that the Union may give to a State under Article 257?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अनुच्छेद 257 के तहत संघ द्वारा राज्य को दिए जा सकने वाले निर्देश का उदाहरण है?

1. Direction regarding State's school curriculum in all subjects

   सभी विषयों में राज्य के स्कूल पाठ्यक्रम के संबंध में निर्देश

2. Direction regarding State taxation rates

   राज्य की कर दरों के संबंध में निर्देश

3. Direction regarding construction and maintenance of means of communication of national or military importance

   राष्ट्रीय या सैन्य महत्व के संचार साधनों के निर्माण और रखरखाव के संबंध में निर्देश

4. Direction regarding appointment of State Ministers

   राज्य मंत्रियों की नियुक्ति के संबंध में निर्देश

Correct Answer: (3) Direction regarding construction and maintenance of means of communication of national or military importance

Article 257 enables the Union to give directions to States regarding construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance. It also covers measures for protection of railways within the State.

21 The Union can entrust certain functions of its executive power to a State with the consent of the State Government under:

संघ अपनी कार्यपालिका शक्ति के कुछ कार्य राज्य सरकार की सहमति से राज्य को किस अनुच्छेद के तहत सौंप सकता है?

1. Article 256

   अनुच्छेद 256

2. Article 257

   अनुच्छेद 257

3. Article 258

   अनुच्छेद 258

4. Article 260

   अनुच्छेद 260

Correct Answer: (3) Article 258

Under Article 258, the President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust functions in relation to matters to which the executive power of the Union extends to that State or its officers.

22 Can the President, without the consent of a State Government, entrust State functions to that State under Article 258?

क्या राष्ट्रपति अनुच्छेद 258 के तहत राज्य सरकार की सहमति के बिना राज्य को राज्य संबंधी कार्य सौंप सकते हैं?

1. Yes, in every case

   हाँ, प्रत्येक मामले में

2. Yes, only during Financial Emergency

   हाँ, केवल वित्तीय आपातकाल के दौरान

3. No, Article 258 concerns entrustment of Union functions to a State with the State's consent

   नहीं, अनुच्छेद 258 राज्य की सहमति से संघ के कार्य राज्य को सौंपने से संबंधित है

4. Yes, if approved by the Supreme Court

   हाँ, यदि सर्वोच्च न्यायालय स्वीकृति दे

Correct Answer: (3) No, Article 258 concerns entrustment of Union functions to a State with the State's consent

Article 258 provides for entrustment by the President of Union functions to a State or its officers with the consent of the State Government. The reciprocal provision is Article 258A, under which a State may entrust functions to the Union with the consent of the Government of India.

23 Article 258A enables a State to entrust certain functions of its executive power to the:

अनुच्छेद 258A राज्य को अपनी कार्यपालिका शक्ति के कुछ कार्य किसे सौंपने की अनुमति देता है?

1. Supreme Court

   सर्वोच्च न्यायालय को

2. Parliament

   संसद को

3. Union, with the consent of the Government of India

   भारत सरकार की सहमति से संघ को

4. Election Commission

   निर्वाचन आयोग को

Correct Answer: (3) Union, with the consent of the Government of India

Article 258A allows the Governor of a State, with the consent of the Government of India, to entrust to that Government or its officers functions in relation to matters to which the executive power of the State extends.

24 The Inter-State Council is provided for under which Article of the Constitution?

अंतर्राज्यीय परिषद का प्रावधान संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद में है?

1. Article 260

   अनुच्छेद 260

2. Article 261

   अनुच्छेद 261

3. Article 263

   अनुच्छेद 263

4. Article 280

   अनुच्छेद 280

Correct Answer: (3) Article 263

Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that public interest would be served by its establishment. Its functions may include inquiring into disputes, discussing subjects of common interest and making recommendations.

25 The Inter-State Council established under Article 263 is best described as:

अनुच्छेद 263 के तहत स्थापित अंतर्राज्यीय परिषद का सर्वोत्तम वर्णन क्या है?

1. A constitutional court

   एक संवैधानिक न्यायालय

2. A permanent judicial tribunal

   एक स्थायी न्यायिक अधिकरण

3. A constitutional mechanism for coordination and cooperation between the Union and States

   संघ और राज्यों के बीच समन्वय और सहयोग का संवैधानिक तंत्र

4. A body that replaces Parliament

   संसद का स्थान लेने वाला निकाय

Correct Answer: (3) A constitutional mechanism for coordination and cooperation between the Union and States

The Inter-State Council is an important institutional mechanism for cooperative federalism. It facilitates discussion and coordination on matters of common interest and intergovernmental relations.

26 The Sarkaria Commission was primarily concerned with:

सरकारिया आयोग मुख्यतः किससे संबंधित था?

1. Electoral reforms

   चुनावी सुधारों से

2. Judicial appointments

   न्यायिक नियुक्तियों से

3. Centre-State relations

   केंद्र-राज्य संबंधों से

4. Local government finance

   स्थानीय सरकार के वित्त से

Correct Answer: (3) Centre-State relations

The Sarkaria Commission was appointed in 1983 to examine and make recommendations regarding Centre-State relations and to suggest changes for improving the working of the existing arrangements.

27 Which commission recommended that the Inter-State Council under Article 263 should be established as a permanent body?

किस आयोग ने अनुच्छेद 263 के तहत अंतर्राज्यीय परिषद को स्थायी निकाय के रूप में स्थापित करने की सिफारिश की?

1. Finance Commission

   वित्त आयोग

2. Sarkaria Commission

   सरकारिया आयोग

3. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

   बलवंत राय मेहता समिति

4. Gadgil Committee

   गाडगिल समिति

Correct Answer: (2) Sarkaria Commission

The Sarkaria Commission strongly recommended strengthening the Inter-State Council as a permanent institutional mechanism for consultation and coordination between the Union and States.

28 Which of the following is NOT a legislative mechanism through which Parliament can legislate on State List subjects?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा वह विधायी तंत्र नहीं है जिसके माध्यम से संसद राज्य सूची के विषयों पर कानून बना सकती है?

1. Article 249 — national interest

   अनुच्छेद 249 — राष्ट्रीय हित

2. Article 250 — Emergency

   अनुच्छेद 250 — आपातकाल

3. Article 252 — consent of States

   अनुच्छेद 252 — राज्यों की सहमति

4. Article 254 — international treaties

   अनुच्छेद 254 — अंतरराष्ट्रीय संधियाँ

Correct Answer: (4) Article 254 — international treaties

Article 254 deals with repugnancy between Parliamentary and State laws on Concurrent List matters. Article 253, not Article 254, concerns implementation of international treaties and agreements and can enable Parliament to legislate even on State List matters.

29 Which of the following subjects is included in the Union List and therefore normally falls within Parliament's exclusive legislative competence?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विषय संघ सूची में शामिल है और सामान्यतः संसद की अनन्य विधायी क्षमता के अंतर्गत आता है?

1. Police

   पुलिस

2. Public health

   लोक स्वास्थ्य

3. Defence

   रक्षा

4. Agriculture

   कृषि

Correct Answer: (3) Defence

Defence of India is a Union List subject and Parliament ordinarily has exclusive power to legislate on it. Police, public health and agriculture are primarily State List subjects.

30 Which of the following subjects is generally placed in the State List?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा विषय सामान्यतः राज्य सूची में रखा गया है?

1. Citizenship

   नागरिकता

2. Atomic energy

   परमाणु ऊर्जा

3. Police

   पुलिस

4. Banking

   बैंकिंग

Correct Answer: (3) Police

Police is a State List subject under the Seventh Schedule, reflecting the States' primary responsibility for public order and policing, subject to constitutional exceptions.

31 Which of the following is a Concurrent List subject?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समवर्ती सूची का विषय है?

1. Public order

   लोक व्यवस्था

2. Defence

   रक्षा

3. Education

   शिक्षा

4. Police

   पुलिस

Correct Answer: (3) Education

Education was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, making it a shared legislative field for the Union and States.

32 Which Constitutional Amendment transferred several subjects, including education and forests, from the State List to the Concurrent List?

किस संविधान संशोधन ने शिक्षा और वन सहित कई विषयों को राज्य सूची से समवर्ती सूची में स्थानांतरित किया?

1. 24th Amendment

   24वाँ संशोधन

2. 44th Amendment

   44वाँ संशोधन

3. 42nd Amendment

   42वाँ संशोधन

4. 73rd Amendment

   73वाँ संशोधन

Correct Answer: (3) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 shifted several subjects, including education, forests and protection of wild animals and birds, from the State List to the Concurrent List.

33 Which body recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of certain taxes between the Union and the States?

कौन-सा निकाय कुछ करों की शुद्ध आय के संघ और राज्यों के बीच वितरण की सिफारिश करता है?

1. GST Council

   GST परिषद

2. Inter-State Council

   अंतर्राज्यीय परिषद

3. Finance Commission

   वित्त आयोग

4. NITI Aayog

   नीति आयोग

Correct Answer: (3) Finance Commission

Under Article 280, the Finance Commission recommends the distribution between the Union and States of the net proceeds of taxes that are to be divided between them and the allocation among the States of their respective shares.

34 The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under:

वित्त आयोग का गठन राष्ट्रपति किस अनुच्छेद के तहत करते हैं?

1. Article 275

   अनुच्छेद 275

2. Article 280

   अनुच्छेद 280

3. Article 281

   अनुच्छेद 281

4. Article 282

   अनुच्छेद 282

Correct Answer: (2) Article 280

Article 280 provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President ordinarily every five years or earlier if considered necessary.

35 Grants-in-aid of the revenues of States in need of assistance are provided for under:

सहायता की आवश्यकता वाले राज्यों के राजस्व में सहायता अनुदान का प्रावधान किस अनुच्छेद में है?

1. Article 270

   अनुच्छेद 270

2. Article 273

   अनुच्छेद 273

3. Article 275

   अनुच्छेद 275

4. Article 280

   अनुच्छेद 280

Correct Answer: (3) Article 275

Article 275 provides for grants-in-aid of the revenues of such States as Parliament may determine to be in need of assistance. It also contains specific provisions relating to grants for Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Areas.

36 Which Article empowers the Union to make grants for any public purpose, notwithstanding that the purpose is not within its legislative competence?

कौन-सा अनुच्छेद संघ को किसी भी सार्वजनिक प्रयोजन के लिए अनुदान देने की शक्ति देता है, भले ही वह प्रयोजन उसकी विधायी क्षमता के अंतर्गत न हो?

1. Article 275

   अनुच्छेद 275

2. Article 282

   अनुच्छेद 282

3. Article 283

   अनुच्छेद 283

4. Article 285

   अनुच्छेद 285

Correct Answer: (2) Article 282

Article 282 permits the Union or a State to make grants for any public purpose, notwithstanding that the purpose is not one with respect to which the respective legislature may make laws.

37 The Goods and Services Tax Council is established under:

वस्तु एवं सेवा कर परिषद की स्थापना किस अनुच्छेद के तहत की गई है?

1. Article 268

   अनुच्छेद 268

2. Article 270

   अनुच्छेद 270

3. Article 279A

   अनुच्छेद 279A

4. Article 280

   अनुच्छेद 280

Correct Answer: (3) Article 279A

Article 279A, inserted by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, provides for the GST Council. It is a key institution of cooperative fiscal federalism between the Union and States.

38 The GST Council is chaired by the:

GST परिषद की अध्यक्षता कौन करता है?

1. Prime Minister

   प्रधानमंत्री

2. President

   राष्ट्रपति

3. Union Minister of Finance

   केंद्रीय वित्त मंत्री

4. Vice-President

   उपराष्ट्रपति

Correct Answer: (3) Union Minister of Finance

Article 279A provides that the Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council. The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance is a member, along with the Finance or Taxation Minister of each State.

39 Which statement about voting in the GST Council is correct?

GST परिषद में मतदान के संबंध में कौन-सा कथन सही है?

1. Every State has equal voting weight with the Union

   प्रत्येक राज्य का संघ के बराबर मतदान भार होता है

2. The Union has two-thirds of the total votes

   संघ के पास कुल मतों का दो-तिहाई भार होता है

3. The Centre has one-third of the weighted votes and all States together have two-thirds

   केंद्र के पास भारित मतों का एक-तिहाई और सभी राज्यों के पास मिलकर दो-तिहाई होता है

4. The Chairperson has an independent casting vote in every matter

   अध्यक्ष को प्रत्येक मामले में स्वतंत्र निर्णायक मत प्राप्त होता है

Correct Answer: (3) The Centre has one-third of the weighted votes and all States together have two-thirds

Under Article 279A, the vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, while the votes of all State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds.

40 Which of the following is a major feature of Indian fiscal federalism?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी भारतीय राजकोषीय संघवाद की प्रमुख विशेषता है?

1. States have exclusive control over all taxation

   सभी करों पर राज्यों का अनन्य नियंत्रण है

2. There is no constitutional tax distribution mechanism

   कोई संवैधानिक कर-वितरण तंत्र नहीं है

3. Constitutional provisions provide for tax sharing and grants between the Union and States

   संविधान संघ और राज्यों के बीच करों के बंटवारे तथा अनुदान का प्रावधान करता है

4. All taxes are collected and retained by States

   सभी कर राज्य द्वारा एकत्र और अपने पास रखे जाते हैं

Correct Answer: (3) Constitutional provisions provide for tax sharing and grants between the Union and States

The Constitution establishes mechanisms for tax assignment, tax sharing, grants-in-aid and fiscal recommendations through provisions such as Articles 268 to 281 and the Finance Commission.

41 Which of the following taxes is constitutionally associated with Article 268 and is collected by the Union but appropriated by the States?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कर संवैधानिक रूप से अनुच्छेद 268 से संबंधित है और संघ द्वारा एकत्र किया जाता है लेकिन राज्यों को विनियोजित किया जाता है?

1. Corporation tax

   निगम कर

2. Income tax

   आयकर

3. Certain duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations

   औषधीय और प्रसाधन सामग्री संबंधी कुछ उत्पाद शुल्क

4. Customs duty

   सीमा शुल्क

Correct Answer: (3) Certain duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations

Article 268 historically provided for certain stamp duties and duties of excise collected by the Union but appropriated to the States. The GST-related constitutional changes have altered the treatment of several earlier taxes, making the article-based framework important for examination purposes.

42 Which Article provides for the distribution of taxes levied and collected by the Union between the Union and the States?

कौन-सा अनुच्छेद संघ द्वारा लगाए और एकत्र किए गए करों के संघ और राज्यों के बीच वितरण का प्रावधान करता है?

1. Article 268

   अनुच्छेद 268

2. Article 269

   अनुच्छेद 269

3. Article 270

   अनुच्छेद 270

4. Article 271

   अनुच्छेद 271

Correct Answer: (3) Article 270

Article 270 provides for the distribution between the Union and the States of certain taxes levied and collected by the Union, forming a major basis of vertical fiscal devolution.

43 Which of the following is an important constitutional safeguard against unilateral alteration of the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States?

संघ और राज्यों के बीच विधायी शक्तियों के वितरण में एकतरफा परिवर्तन के विरुद्ध महत्वपूर्ण संवैधानिक सुरक्षा क्या है?

1. All such changes can be made by executive order

   सभी ऐसे परिवर्तन कार्यपालिका आदेश से किए जा सकते हैं

2. States can change the Seventh Schedule independently

   राज्य स्वतंत्र रूप से सातवीं अनुसूची बदल सकते हैं

3. Constitutional amendment procedures are required for changes to constitutional distribution of powers

   शक्तियों के संवैधानिक वितरण में परिवर्तन के लिए संविधान संशोधन की प्रक्रिया आवश्यक होती है

4. Supreme Court changes the Lists every five years

   सर्वोच्च न्यायालय प्रत्येक पाँच वर्ष में सूचियों को बदलता है

Correct Answer: (3) Constitutional amendment procedures are required for changes to constitutional distribution of powers

The legislative distribution contained in the Constitution and Seventh Schedule cannot ordinarily be altered by an executive order or ordinary State legislation. Constitutional amendment procedures apply to constitutional changes.

44 Which of the following best represents the principle of cooperative federalism in Centre-State relations?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा केंद्र-राज्य संबंधों में सहकारी संघवाद के सिद्धांत को सबसे अच्छी तरह दर्शाता है?

1. Complete independence of States from the Union

   राज्यों की संघ से पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता

2. Complete dominance of States over the Union

   संघ पर राज्यों का पूर्ण प्रभुत्व

3. Institutional consultation and joint decision-making in areas of common interest

   साझा हित के क्षेत्रों में संस्थागत परामर्श और संयुक्त निर्णय-निर्माण

4. Abolition of the Concurrent List

   समवर्ती सूची का उन्मूलन

Correct Answer: (3) Institutional consultation and joint decision-making in areas of common interest

Cooperative federalism involves coordination between different levels of government. Institutions such as the GST Council and Inter-State Council reflect this approach by facilitating consultation and collective decision-making.

45 Which constitutional provision enables the Union to issue directions to States to ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws?

कौन-सा संवैधानिक प्रावधान संघ को संसदीय कानूनों के अनुपालन को सुनिश्चित करने के लिए राज्यों को निर्देश देने की अनुमति देता है?

1. Article 249

   अनुच्छेद 249

2. Article 253

   अनुच्छेद 253

3. Article 256

   अनुच्छेद 256

4. Article 280

   अनुच्छेद 280

Correct Answer: (3) Article 256

Article 256 requires States to ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws and empowers the Union to issue directions to a State when necessary for that purpose.

46 Consider the following statements regarding legislative relations: I. Parliament has exclusive power over the Union List. II. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on the Concurrent List. III. State Legislatures have exclusive power over all matters not enumerated in any list. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

विधायी संबंधों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. संघ सूची पर संसद की अनन्य शक्ति है। II. समवर्ती सूची पर संसद और राज्य विधानमंडल दोनों कानून बना सकते हैं। III. किसी भी सूची में उल्लिखित न किए गए सभी विषयों पर राज्य विधानमंडलों की अनन्य शक्ति है। उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/से कथन सही है/हैं?

1. Only I

   केवल I

2. Only II and III

   केवल II और III

3. Only I and II

   केवल I और II

4. I, II and III

   I, II और III

Correct Answer: (3) Only I and II

Parliament has exclusive power over Union List matters and both levels can legislate on Concurrent List matters. Residuary legislative powers belong to Parliament under Article 248, so statement III is incorrect.

47 Consider the following statements about Article 249: I. The resolution must be passed by the Lok Sabha. II. It requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. III. The resolution permits Parliament to legislate on State List matters in the national interest. Which statements are correct?

अनुच्छेद 249 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. प्रस्ताव लोकसभा द्वारा पारित किया जाना चाहिए। II. इसके लिए उपस्थित और मतदान करने वाले सदस्यों का दो-तिहाई बहुमत आवश्यक है। III. प्रस्ताव राष्ट्रीय हित में संसद को राज्य सूची के विषयों पर कानून बनाने की अनुमति देता है। कौन-से कथन सही हैं?

1. Only I

   केवल I

2. Only I and II

   केवल I और II

3. Only II and III

   केवल II और III

4. Only II and III

   केवल II और III

Correct Answer: (4) Only II and III

Article 249 requires the resolution to be passed by the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha, by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting. It enables Parliament to legislate on State List matters in the national interest.

48 Consider the following statements regarding Article 254: I. It applies to repugnancy between Union and State laws on Concurrent List matters. II. A State law reserved for and receiving Presidential assent can prevail in that State. III. Parliament can never override such a State law. Which statements are correct?

अनुच्छेद 254 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए: I. यह समवर्ती सूची के विषयों पर संघ और राज्य कानूनों के बीच असंगति से संबंधित है। II. राष्ट्रपति के लिए आरक्षित और राष्ट्रपति की स्वीकृति प्राप्त राज्य कानून उस राज्य में प्रभावी हो सकता है। III. संसद ऐसे राज्य कानून को कभी भी अधिरोहित नहीं कर सकती। कौन-से कथन सही हैं?

1. Only I

   केवल I

2. Only I and III

   केवल I और III

3. Only I and II

   केवल I और II

4. I, II and III

   I, II और III

Correct Answer: (3) Only I and II

Article 254 deals with repugnancy on Concurrent List matters. A State law with Presidential assent may prevail within that State, but Parliament retains the power to enact a subsequent law overriding it. Therefore, statement III is incorrect.

49 Which of the following correctly distinguishes Article 249 from Article 250?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा अनुच्छेद 249 और अनुच्छेद 250 के बीच सही अंतर बताता है?

1. Article 249 operates only during Emergency, while Article 250 operates permanently

   अनुच्छेद 249 केवल आपातकाल में लागू होता है, जबकि अनुच्छेद 250 स्थायी रूप से लागू होता है

2. Both require approval of all State Legislatures

   दोनों के लिए सभी राज्य विधानमंडलों की स्वीकृति आवश्यक है

3. Article 249 is based on a Rajya Sabha resolution in national interest, while Article 250 operates during a National Emergency

   अनुच्छेद 249 राष्ट्रीय हित में राज्यसभा के प्रस्ताव पर आधारित है, जबकि अनुच्छेद 250 राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल के दौरान लागू होता है

4. Article 249 concerns international treaties, while Article 250 concerns taxation

   अनुच्छेद 249 अंतरराष्ट्रीय संधियों और अनुच्छेद 250 कराधान से संबंधित है

Correct Answer: (3) Article 249 is based on a Rajya Sabha resolution in national interest, while Article 250 operates during a National Emergency

Article 249 permits Parliament to legislate on State List matters when the Rajya Sabha passes the required national-interest resolution. Article 250 provides the same broad legislative competence during the operation of a National Emergency.

50 Which of the following best reflects the overall constitutional character of Centre-State relations in India?

निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा भारत में केंद्र-राज्य संबंधों के समग्र संवैधानिक स्वरूप को सबसे अच्छी तरह दर्शाता है?

1. India follows a completely rigid federation in which the Union has no overriding powers

   भारत पूरी तरह कठोर संघीय व्यवस्था का पालन करता है जिसमें संघ के पास कोई अधिभावी शक्ति नहीं है

2. India is a unitary State with no constitutionally protected State powers

   भारत एक एकात्मक राज्य है जिसमें राज्यों की कोई संवैधानिक रूप से संरक्षित शक्ति नहीं है

3. States possess all residuary powers and Parliament cannot legislate on State List subjects

   राज्यों के पास सभी अवशिष्ट शक्तियां हैं और संसद राज्य सूची के विषयों पर कानून नहीं बना सकती

4. India combines federal distribution of powers with significant Union powers and mechanisms of coordination and cooperation

   भारत शक्तियों के संघीय वितरण को महत्वपूर्ण संघीय शक्तियों तथा समन्वय और सहयोग के तंत्रों के साथ जोड़ता है

Correct Answer: (4) India combines federal distribution of powers with significant Union powers and mechanisms of coordination and cooperation

The Indian Constitution establishes a federal division of legislative, administrative and financial powers but gives the Union significant powers in areas such as residuary legislation, emergency situations, national interest and treaty implementation. At the same time, institutions such as the Inter-State Council, Finance Commission and GST Council promote cooperative federalism.

1 Which one of the following statements regarding the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the States is correct?

1. Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on matters enumerated in the Union List.

   संघ सूची में उल्लिखित विषयों पर कानून बनाने की अनन्य शक्ति संसद को प्राप्त है।

2. State Legislatures have exclusive power over all matters in the Concurrent List.

   समवर्ती सूची के सभी विषयों पर कानून बनाने की अनन्य शक्ति राज्य विधानमंडलों को प्राप्त है।

3. Parliament cannot legislate on any matter in the State List under any circumstances.

   किसी भी परिस्थिति में संसद राज्य सूची के किसी विषय पर कानून नहीं बना सकती है।

4. The Constitution gives identical legislative powers to Parliament and State Legislatures.

   संविधान संसद और राज्य विधानमंडलों को समान विधायी शक्तियाँ प्रदान करता है।

Correct Answer: (1) Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on matters enumerated in the Union List.

Explanation:

1. Parliament has exclusive power over Union List subjects under Article 246(1). (✅)
2. The Concurrent List can be legislated upon by both Parliament and State Legislatures. (❌)
3. Parliament can legislate on State List matters in several constitutionally specified situations. (❌)
4. The Constitution establishes a distribution rather than identical legislative powers. (❌)

2 Which one of the following statements about Article 246 is incorrect?

1. Article 246 deals with the subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures.

   अनुच्छेद 246 संसद और राज्य विधानमंडलों द्वारा बनाए जाने वाले कानूनों के विषय-वस्तु से संबंधित है।

2. Parliament has exclusive power over matters in the Union List, subject to the Constitution.

   संविधान के अधीन संघ सूची के विषयों पर संसद की अनन्य शक्ति है।

3. State Legislatures have exclusive power over matters in the Concurrent List.

   समवर्ती सूची के विषयों पर राज्य विधानमंडलों की अनन्य शक्ति है।

4. Parliament and State Legislatures both have power over matters in the Concurrent List.

   समवर्ती सूची के विषयों पर संसद और राज्य विधानमंडल दोनों को कानून बनाने की शक्ति है।

Correct Answer: (3) State Legislatures have exclusive power over matters in the Concurrent List.

Explanation:

1. Article 246 distributes legislative subjects among the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. (✅)
2. Article 246(1) gives Parliament exclusive power over Union List matters. (✅)
3. The Concurrent List is subject to legislation by both Parliament and State Legislatures. (❌)
4. Both levels have legislative competence over Concurrent List matters. (✅)

3 Which one of the following statements regarding residuary legislative powers is correct?

1. Residuary powers belong exclusively to State Legislatures.

   अवशिष्ट विधायी शक्तियाँ केवल राज्य विधानमंडलों में निहित हैं।

2. Residuary powers are exercised jointly by Parliament and State Legislatures.

   अवशिष्ट शक्तियों का प्रयोग संसद और राज्य विधानमंडल संयुक्त रूप से करते हैं।

3. Residuary powers are vested in the Supreme Court.

   अवशिष्ट शक्तियाँ सर्वोच्च न्यायालय में निहित हैं।

4. Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on matters not enumerated in the State or Concurrent Lists.

   राज्य या समवर्ती सूची में उल्लिखित न किए गए विषयों पर कानून बनाने की अनन्य शक्ति संसद को प्राप्त है।

Correct Answer: (4) Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on matters not enumerated in the State or Concurrent Lists.

Explanation:

1. The Constitution follows the Union-residuary power model. (❌)
2. Residuary legislative power is not shared between Parliament and States. (❌)
3. The Supreme Court does not possess residuary legislative power. (❌)
4. Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List vest residuary legislative power in Parliament. (✅)

4 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 249 is incorrect?

1. Article 249 enables Parliament to legislate on a State List matter in the national interest.

   अनुच्छेद 249 राष्ट्रीय हित में संसद को राज्य सूची के विषय पर कानून बनाने में सक्षम बनाता है।

2. A resolution supporting such legislation must be passed by the Rajya Sabha.

   ऐसे कानून के समर्थन में प्रस्ताव राज्यसभा द्वारा पारित किया जाना आवश्यक है।

3. The resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.

   प्रस्ताव को उपस्थित और मतदान करने वाले सदस्यों के कम-से-कम दो-तिहाई बहुमत से पारित किया जाना चाहिए।

4. The resolution remains permanently effective once passed by the Rajya Sabha.

   राज्यसभा द्वारा पारित किए जाने के बाद प्रस्ताव स्थायी रूप से प्रभावी रहता है।

Correct Answer: (4) The resolution remains permanently effective once passed by the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation:

1. Article 249 permits Parliament to legislate on State List matters when the national interest requires it. (✅)
2. The special resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha. (✅)
3. The required majority is two-thirds of members present and voting. (✅)
4. The resolution remains effective for a maximum period of one year at a time and can be renewed. (❌)

5 Which one of the following statements about Article 250 is correct?

1. It permits States to legislate on Union List matters during a National Emergency.

   यह राज्यों को राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल के दौरान संघ सूची के विषयों पर कानून बनाने की अनुमति देता है।

2. It empowers Parliament to legislate on State List matters while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation.

   जब आपातकाल की उद्घोषणा लागू हो, तब यह संसद को राज्य सूची के विषयों पर कानून बनाने की शक्ति देता है।

3. It applies only during President's Rule in a State.

   यह केवल किसी राज्य में राष्ट्रपति शासन के दौरान लागू होता है।

4. It permanently transfers State legislative powers to Parliament.

   यह राज्य की विधायी शक्तियों को स्थायी रूप से संसद को हस्तांतरित कर देता है।

Correct Answer: (2) It empowers Parliament to legislate on State List matters while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation.

Explanation:

1. Article 250 operates in the opposite direction: Parliament gains power over State List matters. (❌)
2. Article 250 permits Parliament to legislate on State List matters during a National Emergency. (✅)
3. Article 250 concerns National Emergency, not merely President's Rule. (❌)
4. The power is temporary and does not permanently transfer State legislative competence. (❌)

6 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 252 is incorrect?

1. Parliament can legislate on a State List matter when two or more State Legislatures request it.

   जब दो या अधिक राज्य विधानमंडल अनुरोध करें, तब संसद राज्य सूची के विषय पर कानून बना सकती है।

2. Other States may subsequently adopt such legislation through resolutions of their Legislatures.

   अन्य राज्य बाद में अपने विधानमंडलों के प्रस्तावों द्वारा ऐसे कानून को अपना सकते हैं।

3. A law made under Article 252 can subsequently be amended by an individual State Legislature for that State alone.

   अनुच्छेद 252 के तहत बनाए गए कानून में बाद में कोई राज्य विधानमंडल अकेले अपने राज्य के लिए संशोधन कर सकता है।

4. Parliament can amend or repeal a law made under Article 252.

   अनुच्छेद 252 के तहत बनाए गए कानून में संशोधन या उसे निरस्त संसद कर सकती है।

Correct Answer: (3) A law made under Article 252 can subsequently be amended by an individual State Legislature for that State alone.

Explanation:

1. Article 252 is triggered by resolutions of two or more State Legislatures. (✅)
2. Other States can adopt the law by passing similar resolutions. (✅)
3. Once Parliament legislates under Article 252, individual State Legislatures cannot amend or repeal it. (❌)
4. Only Parliament can amend or repeal such legislation. (✅)

7 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 253 is correct?

1. It applies only to treaties relating to foreign affairs and never to State List matters.

   यह केवल विदेश मामलों से संबंधित संधियों पर लागू होता है और कभी भी राज्य सूची के विषयों पर लागू नहीं होता है।

2. It requires prior consent of all State Legislatures before Parliament can legislate.

   संसद को कानून बनाने से पहले सभी राज्य विधानमंडलों की पूर्व सहमति आवश्यक होती है।

3. It gives State Legislatures exclusive authority to implement international agreements.

   यह अंतरराष्ट्रीय समझौतों को लागू करने का विशेष अधिकार राज्य विधानमंडलों को देता है।

4. Parliament may make laws for implementing treaties, agreements or conventions even on matters otherwise falling within State legislative competence.

   संधियों, समझौतों या अभिसमयों को लागू करने के लिए संसद राज्य विधायी क्षेत्र के विषयों पर भी कानून बना सकती है।

Correct Answer: (4) Parliament may make laws for implementing treaties, agreements or conventions even on matters otherwise falling within State legislative competence.

Explanation:

1. Article 253 is broader and can operate even in areas otherwise within State competence. (❌)
2. Prior consent of all State Legislatures is not required. (❌)
3. Parliament has the legislative power under Article 253. (❌)
4. Article 253 gives Parliament this special power for implementing international obligations. (✅)

8 Which one of the following statements about the repugnancy rule under Article 254 is incorrect?

1. Article 254 deals with inconsistency between Parliamentary and State laws on Concurrent List matters.

   अनुच्छेद 254 समवर्ती सूची के विषयों पर संसद और राज्य के कानूनों के बीच असंगति से संबंधित है।

2. Generally, a Parliamentary law prevails over an inconsistent State law.

   सामान्यतः असंगत राज्य कानून पर संसदीय कानून प्रभावी होता है।

3. A State law reserved for the consideration of the President and receiving Presidential assent can prevail in that State.

   राष्ट्रपति के विचार के लिए आरक्षित और राष्ट्रपति की स्वीकृति प्राप्त राज्य कानून उस राज्य में प्रभावी हो सकता है।

4. Presidential assent makes the State law permanently immune from being overridden by a subsequent Parliamentary law.

   राष्ट्रपति की स्वीकृति राज्य कानून को बाद के संसदीय कानून द्वारा अधिरोहित किए जाने से स्थायी रूप से सुरक्षित कर देती है।

Correct Answer: (4) Presidential assent makes the State law permanently immune from being overridden by a subsequent Parliamentary law.

Explanation:

1. Article 254 applies primarily to Concurrent List conflicts. (✅)
2. Parliamentary law normally prevails in case of repugnancy. (✅)
3. Presidential assent can allow the State law to prevail within that State. (✅)
4. Parliament can subsequently override such a State law. (❌)

9 Which one of the following statements regarding the Inter-State Council is correct?

1. It is a constitutional court for resolving disputes between States.

   यह राज्यों के बीच विवादों को सुलझाने वाला संवैधानिक न्यायालय है।

2. The President may establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that public interest would be served by its establishment.

   यदि राष्ट्रपति को लगे कि इसकी स्थापना से लोकहित की पूर्ति होगी, तो वे अंतर-राज्य परिषद की स्थापना कर सकते हैं।

3. It can be established only by a constitutional amendment.

   इसकी स्थापना केवल संविधान संशोधन द्वारा की जा सकती है।

4. It is headed constitutionally by the Chief Justice of India.

   संवैधानिक रूप से इसकी अध्यक्षता भारत के मुख्य न्यायाधीश करते हैं।

Correct Answer: (2) The President may establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that public interest would be served by its establishment.

Explanation:

1. The Inter-State Council is an advisory and coordination mechanism, not a court. (❌)
2. Article 263 empowers the President to establish it in the public interest. (✅)
3. No constitutional amendment is necessary for its establishment under Article 263. (❌)
4. The Prime Minister chairs the Inter-State Council under the Presidential order establishing it. (❌)

10 Which one of the following is NOT a function that may be assigned to the Inter-State Council under Article 263?

1. Inquiring into and advising upon disputes between States.

   राज्यों के बीच विवादों की जाँच करना और उन पर सलाह देना।

2. Investigating and discussing subjects of common interest between the Union and States.

   संघ और राज्यों के सामान्य हित के विषयों की जाँच और चर्चा करना।

3. Making recommendations for better coordination of policy and action.

   नीति और कार्रवाई के बेहतर समन्वय के लिए सिफारिशें करना।

4. Adjudicating inter-State river water disputes with binding judicial authority.

   अंतर-राज्यीय नदी जल विवादों का बाध्यकारी न्यायिक अधिकार के साथ निर्णय करना।

Correct Answer: (4) Adjudicating inter-State river water disputes with binding judicial authority.

Explanation:

1. Inquiring into and advising upon inter-State disputes is one of the possible functions under Article 263. (✅)
2. Discussion of subjects of common interest is an Article 263 function. (✅)
3. Recommendations for coordination are expressly contemplated. (✅)
4. The Council is advisory and does not possess judicial adjudicatory authority over river disputes. (❌)

11 Which one of the following statements regarding the Governor's role in Centre-State relations is incorrect?

1. The Governor is appointed by the President.

   राज्यपाल की नियुक्ति राष्ट्रपति द्वारा की जाती है।

2. The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.

   राज्यपाल राष्ट्रपति के प्रसादपर्यंत पद धारण करता है।

3. The Governor may reserve certain State Bills for the consideration of the President.

   राज्यपाल कुछ राज्य विधेयकों को राष्ट्रपति के विचार के लिए आरक्षित कर सकता है।

4. The Governor is constitutionally subordinate to the Union Council of Ministers in all matters concerning the State.

   राज्य से संबंधित सभी मामलों में राज्यपाल संवैधानिक रूप से संघ मंत्रिपरिषद के अधीन होता है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Governor is constitutionally subordinate to the Union Council of Ministers in all matters concerning the State.

Explanation:

1. Article 155 provides for appointment of the Governor by the President. (✅)
2. Article 156 provides that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. (✅)
3. Article 200 provides for reservation of certain Bills for Presidential consideration. (✅)
4. The Governor is the constitutional head of the State and is not constitutionally described as subordinate to the Union Council of Ministers. (❌)

12 Which one of the following statements regarding the Governor's discretionary powers is correct?

1. The Governor has no discretionary powers under the Constitution.

   संविधान के तहत राज्यपाल के पास कोई विवेकाधीन शक्ति नहीं है।

2. The Governor can disregard the Council of Ministers whenever he personally disagrees with its policies.

   जब राज्यपाल व्यक्तिगत रूप से मंत्रिपरिषद की नीतियों से असहमत हों, तब वे उसकी सलाह को नजरअंदाज कर सकते हैं।

3. The Governor has certain constitutionally recognized discretionary situations, including reserving certain Bills for the President's consideration.

   राज्यपाल के पास कुछ संवैधानिक रूप से मान्य विवेकाधीन स्थितियाँ हैं, जिनमें कुछ विधेयकों को राष्ट्रपति के विचार के लिए आरक्षित करना शामिल है।

4. The Governor's discretion is identical to the President's discretion in every constitutional matter.

   हर संवैधानिक मामले में राज्यपाल का विवेक राष्ट्रपति के विवेक के समान है।

Correct Answer: (3) The Governor has certain constitutionally recognized discretionary situations, including reserving certain Bills for the President's consideration.

Explanation:

1. The Constitution recognizes specific situations in which the Governor may exercise discretion. (❌)
2. The Governor cannot disregard ministerial advice merely because of personal disagreement. (❌)
3. Reservation of Bills under Article 200 is one important area of gubernatorial discretion. (✅)
4. The President and Governor have distinct constitutional positions and powers. (❌)

13 Which one of the following statements about Article 256 is incorrect?

1. States must exercise their executive power to ensure compliance with laws made by Parliament applicable in the State.

   राज्यों को अपनी कार्यपालिका शक्ति का प्रयोग इस प्रकार करना चाहिए कि संसद द्वारा बनाए गए लागू कानूनों का पालन सुनिश्चित हो।

2. The Union can give directions to a State for this purpose.

   इस उद्देश्य से संघ राज्य को निर्देश दे सकता है।

3. Article 256 concerns obligations of States and the Union's power to issue directions in this context.

   अनुच्छेद 256 राज्यों के दायित्वों और इस संदर्भ में संघ की निर्देश देने की शक्ति से संबंधित है।

4. Directions under Article 256 can be issued only with the consent of the State Legislature.

   अनुच्छेद 256 के तहत निर्देश केवल राज्य विधानमंडल की सहमति से ही जारी किए जा सकते हैं।

Correct Answer: (4) Directions under Article 256 can be issued only with the consent of the State Legislature.

Explanation:

1. Article 256 imposes an obligation on States regarding Parliamentary laws. (✅)
2. The Union may issue directions to ensure compliance. (✅)
3. It is an important provision concerning administrative relations. (✅)
4. The Constitution does not require prior consent of the State Legislature for such directions. (❌)

14 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 257 is correct?

1. It prohibits the Union from giving directions to States concerning executive power.

   यह संघ को कार्यपालिका शक्ति के संबंध में राज्यों को निर्देश देने से रोकता है।

2. It deals exclusively with financial relations between the Union and States.

   यह केवल संघ और राज्यों के बीच वित्तीय संबंधों से संबंधित है।

3. It permits States to override Union executive directions whenever they conflict with State policy.

   जब संघ के कार्यपालिका निर्देश राज्य की नीति से टकराएँ, तब राज्य उन्हें नजरअंदाज कर सकते हैं।

4. The executive power of every State must be exercised so as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the Union's executive power.

   प्रत्येक राज्य की कार्यपालिका शक्ति का प्रयोग इस प्रकार होना चाहिए कि संघ की कार्यपालिका शक्ति के प्रयोग में बाधा या प्रतिकूल प्रभाव न पड़े।

Correct Answer: (4) The executive power of every State must be exercised so as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the Union's executive power.

Explanation:

1. Article 257 recognizes certain Union directions to States. (❌)
2. Article 257 concerns administrative/executive relations, not financial relations. (❌)
3. States cannot simply disregard constitutionally valid Union directions. (❌)
4. This is the core principle stated in Article 257(1). (✅)

15 Which one of the following statements regarding All-India Services is incorrect?

1. An All-India Service may be created by Parliament if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution in the national interest.

   यदि राज्यसभा राष्ट्रीय हित में प्रस्ताव पारित करे, तो संसद अखिल भारतीय सेवा का गठन कर सकती है।

2. The Rajya Sabha resolution requires a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

   राज्यसभा के प्रस्ताव के लिए उपस्थित और मतदान करने वाले सदस्यों का दो-तिहाई बहुमत आवश्यक है।

3. Article 312 provides the constitutional basis for All-India Services.

   अनुच्छेद 312 अखिल भारतीय सेवाओं का संवैधानिक आधार प्रदान करता है।

4. The Lok Sabha alone can initiate the constitutional process for creating an All-India Service.

   अखिल भारतीय सेवा के गठन की संवैधानिक प्रक्रिया केवल लोकसभा ही शुरू कर सकती है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Lok Sabha alone can initiate the constitutional process for creating an All-India Service.

Explanation:

1. Article 312 permits Parliament to create an All-India Service following the prescribed Rajya Sabha resolution. (✅)
2. The special Rajya Sabha resolution requires two-thirds of members present and voting. (✅)
3. Article 312 is the constitutional foundation for All-India Services. (✅)
4. The initiating resolution is passed by the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha alone. (❌)

16 Which one of the following statements about the Finance Commission is correct?

1. It is a permanent body consisting only of State Finance Ministers.

   यह एक स्थायी निकाय है जिसमें केवल राज्य वित्त मंत्री शामिल होते हैं।

2. It is constituted by the Prime Minister every three years.

   इसका गठन प्रधानमंत्री द्वारा प्रत्येक तीन वर्ष में किया जाता है।

3. The President constitutes a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year or earlier if necessary.

   राष्ट्रपति प्रत्येक पाँच वर्ष की अवधि की समाप्ति पर या आवश्यकता होने पर उससे पहले वित्त आयोग का गठन करते हैं।

4. It is constituted by the Chief Justice of India.

   इसका गठन भारत के मुख्य न्यायाधीश द्वारा किया जाता है।

Correct Answer: (3) The President constitutes a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year or earlier if necessary.

Explanation:

1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional commission and not a permanent body of State Finance Ministers. (❌)
2. Article 280 provides for constitution by the President every five years or earlier. (❌)
3. This is expressly provided under Article 280. (✅)
4. The Chief Justice of India does not constitute the Finance Commission. (❌)

17 Which one of the following is NOT a constitutional function of the Finance Commission under Article 280?

1. Recommending the distribution between the Union and States of net proceeds of taxes divisible between them.

   संघ और राज्यों के बीच विभाज्य करों की शुद्ध आय के वितरण की सिफारिश करना।

2. Recommending the principles governing grants-in-aid to States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

   भारत की संचित निधि से राज्यों को दिए जाने वाले सहायता अनुदानों के सिद्धांतों की सिफारिश करना।

3. Recommending measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.

   पंचायतों और नगरपालिकाओं के संसाधनों की पूर्ति के लिए राज्य की संचित निधि को बढ़ाने के उपायों की सिफारिश करना।

4. Determining the annual monetary allocation to every State without reference to constitutional criteria.

   संवैधानिक मानदंडों को ध्यान में रखे बिना प्रत्येक राज्य के लिए वार्षिक मौद्रिक आवंटन निर्धारित करना।

Correct Answer: (4) Determining the annual monetary allocation to every State without reference to constitutional criteria.

Explanation:

1. Tax devolution is a major Finance Commission function. (✅)
2. It recommends principles for grants-in-aid under Article 275. (✅)
3. Article 280 includes recommendations concerning Panchayats and Municipalities. (✅)
4. The Finance Commission recommends; it does not arbitrarily determine annual allocations without constitutional criteria. (❌)

18 Which one of the following statements regarding GST Council is incorrect?

1. The GST Council is established under Article 279A.

   जीएसटी परिषद की स्थापना अनुच्छेद 279A के तहत की गई है।

2. The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council.

   केंद्रीय वित्त मंत्री जीएसटी परिषद के अध्यक्ष होते हैं।

3. State Finance or Taxation Ministers are represented in the Council.

   राज्यों के वित्त या कराधान मंत्री परिषद में प्रतिनिधित्व करते हैं।

4. Every decision of the GST Council requires unanimous approval of all its members.

   जीएसटी परिषद का प्रत्येक निर्णय सभी सदस्यों की सर्वसम्मत स्वीकृति से ही लिया जाता है।

Correct Answer: (4) Every decision of the GST Council requires unanimous approval of all its members.

Explanation:

1. Article 279A provides for the GST Council. (✅)
2. The Union Finance Minister is its Chairperson. (✅)
3. States are represented through their nominated Ministers. (✅)
4. Decisions require the prescribed weighted majority, not unanimity. (❌)

19 Which one of the following statements about GST Council voting is correct?

1. Each member has one equal vote regardless of whether the member represents the Union or a State.

   प्रत्येक सदस्य का एक समान मत होता है, चाहे वह संघ या राज्य का प्रतिनिधित्व करता हो।

2. The vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, while the States together have two-thirds.

   केंद्र सरकार के मत का भार कुल डाले गए मतों का एक-तिहाई तथा राज्यों के मतों का संयुक्त भार दो-तिहाई होता है।

3. The Union Government has two-thirds and all States together have one-third weightage.

   केंद्र सरकार का दो-तिहाई और सभी राज्यों का संयुक्त रूप से एक-तिहाई भार होता है।

4. Only the Union Finance Minister has voting rights.

   केवल केंद्रीय वित्त मंत्री को मतदान का अधिकार है।

Correct Answer: (2) The vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, while the States together have two-thirds.

Explanation:

1. The voting structure is weighted rather than one-member-one-vote. (❌)
2. Article 279A provides one-third weight to the Centre and two-thirds collectively to States. (✅)
3. The weightages are the reverse of this statement. (❌)
4. State representatives also have voting rights. (❌)

20 Which one of the following statements regarding inter-State water disputes is incorrect?

1. Article 262 deals with adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys.

   अनुच्छेद 262 अंतर-राज्यीय नदियों या नदी घाटियों के जल से संबंधित विवादों के निर्णय से संबंधित है।

2. Parliament may provide by law for adjudication of such disputes.

   संसद ऐसे विवादों के निर्णय के लिए कानून द्वारा प्रावधान कर सकती है।

3. Parliament may provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction over such disputes.

   संसद यह प्रावधान कर सकती है कि ऐसे विवादों पर सर्वोच्च न्यायालय या कोई अन्य न्यायालय अधिकारिता का प्रयोग न करे।

4. Article 262 makes the Supreme Court the compulsory first forum for every inter-State river water dispute.

   अनुच्छेद 262 सर्वोच्च न्यायालय को प्रत्येक अंतर-राज्यीय नदी जल विवाद का अनिवार्य प्रथम मंच बनाता है।

Correct Answer: (4) Article 262 makes the Supreme Court the compulsory first forum for every inter-State river water dispute.

Explanation:

1. Article 262 specifically concerns inter-State river water disputes. (✅)
2. Parliament has power to provide a mechanism for adjudication. (✅)
3. Article 262(2) permits Parliament to exclude court jurisdiction. (✅)
4. The Constitution does not make the Supreme Court the compulsory first forum. (❌)

21 Which one of the following statements regarding freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse under Part XIII is correct?

1. Freedom under Article 301 applies only to trade between India and foreign countries.

   अनुच्छेद 301 की स्वतंत्रता केवल भारत और विदेशी देशों के बीच व्यापार पर लागू होती है।

2. Article 301 guarantees absolute freedom without any constitutional exceptions.

   अनुच्छेद 301 बिना किसी संवैधानिक अपवाद के पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता की गारंटी देता है।

3. Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free, subject to the provisions of Part XIII.

   अनुच्छेद 301 घोषित करता है कि भारत के पूरे क्षेत्र में व्यापार, वाणिज्य और समागम स्वतंत्र होंगे, जो भाग XIII के प्रावधानों के अधीन हैं।

4. Only State Legislatures can regulate inter-State trade under Part XIII.

   भाग XIII के तहत अंतर-राज्यीय व्यापार को विनियमित करने की शक्ति केवल राज्य विधानमंडलों को है।

Correct Answer: (3) Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free, subject to the provisions of Part XIII.

Explanation:

1. Article 301 concerns trade, commerce and intercourse throughout India, including internal movement. (❌)
2. The freedom is subject to constitutional restrictions contained in Part XIII. (❌)
3. This accurately states Article 301. (✅)
4. Parliament also has important powers under Articles 302 and 304 framework. (❌)

22 Which one of the following statements about Article 302 is incorrect?

1. Parliament may impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse between one State and another or within any part of India.

   संसद एक राज्य और दूसरे राज्य के बीच या भारत के किसी भाग के भीतर व्यापार, वाणिज्य या समागम की स्वतंत्रता पर प्रतिबंध लगा सकती है।

2. Restrictions under Article 302 must be required in the public interest.

   अनुच्छेद 302 के तहत प्रतिबंध लोकहित में आवश्यक होने चाहिए।

3. Article 302 is located in Part XIII of the Constitution.

   अनुच्छेद 302 संविधान के भाग XIII में स्थित है।

4. Article 302 authorizes State Legislatures to impose restrictions on inter-State trade without constitutional limitations.

   अनुच्छेद 302 राज्य विधानमंडलों को संवैधानिक सीमाओं के बिना अंतर-राज्यीय व्यापार पर प्रतिबंध लगाने का अधिकार देता है।

Correct Answer: (4) Article 302 authorizes State Legislatures to impose restrictions on inter-State trade without constitutional limitations.

Explanation:

1. Article 302 gives Parliament the power to impose restrictions. (✅)
2. Public interest is the constitutional requirement under Article 302. (✅)
3. Article 302 is part of Part XIII. (✅)
4. Article 302 concerns Parliament, not unrestricted State legislative power. (❌)

23 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 304 is correct?

1. States can discriminate freely against goods from other States.

   राज्य अन्य राज्यों से आने वाली वस्तुओं के विरुद्ध स्वतंत्र रूप से भेदभाव कर सकते हैं।

2. States cannot impose any tax on goods imported from other States.

   राज्य अन्य राज्यों से आयातित वस्तुओं पर कोई कर नहीं लगा सकते।

3. A State Legislature may impose a tax on goods imported from other States if similar goods produced in that State are also subject to the tax and there is no discrimination.

   राज्य विधानमंडल अन्य राज्यों से आयातित वस्तुओं पर कर लगा सकता है, यदि उसी प्रकार की राज्य में उत्पादित वस्तुओं पर भी कर लगाया जाता है और कोई भेदभाव नहीं होता।

4. Article 304 applies only to foreign imports.

   अनुच्छेद 304 केवल विदेशी आयात पर लागू होता है।

Correct Answer: (3) A State Legislature may impose a tax on goods imported from other States if similar goods produced in that State are also subject to the tax and there is no discrimination.

Explanation:

1. Article 304(a) prohibits discriminatory taxation against goods from other States. (❌)
2. Article 304 permits certain non-discriminatory taxation. (❌)
3. This accurately reflects Article 304(a). (✅)
4. Article 304 concerns trade within India, particularly inter-State trade. (❌)

24 Which one of the following statements about State Bills under Article 200 is incorrect?

1. The Governor may assent to a Bill, withhold assent, or reserve it for the President in constitutionally permitted circumstances.

   राज्यपाल विधेयक को स्वीकृति दे सकता है, स्वीकृति रोक सकता है या संवैधानिक रूप से अनुमत परिस्थितियों में उसे राष्ट्रपति के लिए आरक्षित कर सकता है।

2. The Governor may return a Bill other than a Money Bill for reconsideration.

   राज्यपाल धन विधेयक के अतिरिक्त किसी विधेयक को पुनर्विचार के लिए वापस कर सकता है।

3. A Bill returned and passed again by the Legislature cannot ordinarily be returned again for reconsideration by the Governor.

   विधानमंडल द्वारा पुनः पारित किए गए विधेयक को सामान्यतः राज्यपाल पुनर्विचार के लिए दोबारा वापस नहीं कर सकता।

4. The Governor must always assent to a Bill after it is passed for the second time.

   दूसरी बार पारित होने के बाद राज्यपाल को हर स्थिति में विधेयक को स्वीकृति देनी ही होती है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Governor must always assent to a Bill after it is passed for the second time.

Explanation:

1. Article 200 provides multiple constitutional options to the Governor. (✅)
2. A non-Money Bill may be returned for reconsideration. (✅)
3. After reconsideration and repassage, the Bill cannot ordinarily be returned again for reconsideration. (✅)
4. The Constitution does not state that the Governor must always assent after repassage; reservation for the President remains constitutionally relevant. (❌)

25 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 201 is correct?

1. It deals with State taxation powers under the Seventh Schedule.

   यह सातवीं अनुसूची के तहत राज्यों की कराधान शक्तियों से संबंधित है।

2. It provides for disputes between States over river waters.

   यह राज्यों के बीच नदी जल विवादों के लिए प्रावधान करता है।

3. It establishes the Inter-State Council.

   यह अंतर-राज्य परिषद की स्थापना करता है।

4. It deals with Bills reserved by the Governor for consideration of the President.

   यह राज्यपाल द्वारा राष्ट्रपति के विचार के लिए आरक्षित विधेयकों से संबंधित है।

Correct Answer: (4) It deals with Bills reserved by the Governor for consideration of the President.

Explanation:

1. State taxation powers are primarily distributed through the Seventh Schedule and specific constitutional provisions. (❌)
2. Inter-State river water disputes are addressed by Article 262. (❌)
3. The Inter-State Council is provided for under Article 263. (❌)
4. Article 201 specifically governs Bills reserved for Presidential consideration. (✅)

26 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 355 is incorrect?

1. It imposes a duty on the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance.

   यह संघ पर प्रत्येक राज्य को बाहरी आक्रमण और आंतरिक अशांति से बचाने का दायित्व डालता है।

2. It requires the Union to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

   यह संघ को यह सुनिश्चित करने का दायित्व देता है कि प्रत्येक राज्य की सरकार संविधान के अनुसार चलाई जाए।

3. It forms part of the provisions concerning relations between the Union and States.

   यह संघ और राज्यों के संबंधों से संबंधित प्रावधानों का हिस्सा है।

4. Article 355 itself automatically dissolves the State Legislative Assembly whenever constitutional machinery fails.

   संवैधानिक तंत्र विफल होने पर अनुच्छेद 355 स्वयं राज्य विधानसभा को स्वतः भंग कर देता है।

Correct Answer: (4) Article 355 itself automatically dissolves the State Legislative Assembly whenever constitutional machinery fails.

Explanation:

1. Protection against external aggression and internal disturbance is expressly mentioned in Article 355. (✅)
2. Ensuring constitutional government in every State is another duty under Article 355. (✅)
3. Article 355 is an important Union-State administrative provision. (✅)
4. Article 356 provides for action in case of failure of constitutional machinery; Article 355 itself does not automatically dissolve the Assembly. (❌)

27 Which one of the following statements about Article 356 is correct?

1. It can be proclaimed only when the President personally determines that a State government is politically unpopular.

   इसे केवल तब लागू किया जा सकता है जब राष्ट्रपति व्यक्तिगत रूप से तय करें कि राज्य सरकार राजनीतिक रूप से अलोकप्रिय है।

2. It automatically permanently abolishes the State Legislature.

   यह राज्य विधानमंडल को स्वतः स्थायी रूप से समाप्त कर देता है।

3. It may be invoked when the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor or otherwise, is satisfied that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

   जब राष्ट्रपति राज्यपाल की रिपोर्ट या अन्यथा प्राप्त सूचना के आधार पर संतुष्ट हों कि राज्य की सरकार संविधान के अनुसार नहीं चलाई जा सकती, तब इसे लागू किया जा सकता है।

4. It can be imposed only with prior approval of the Supreme Court.

   इसे केवल सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की पूर्व स्वीकृति से ही लागू किया जा सकता है।

Correct Answer: (3) It may be invoked when the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor or otherwise, is satisfied that the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

Explanation:

1. Political unpopularity alone is not the constitutional test. (❌)
2. The Assembly may be kept in suspended animation or dissolved subject to constitutional requirements; permanent automatic abolition is incorrect. (❌)
3. This reflects Article 356(1). (✅)
4. Prior Supreme Court approval is not required. (❌)

28 Which one of the following statements regarding President's Rule is incorrect?

1. A Proclamation under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within the prescribed period.

   अनुच्छेद 356 के तहत उद्घोषणा को निर्धारित अवधि के भीतर संसद के दोनों सदनों द्वारा अनुमोदित किया जाना चाहिए।

2. Once approved, it continues for six months at a time, subject to constitutional limits and requirements.

   अनुमोदन के बाद यह एक समय में छह महीने तक जारी रह सकती है, जो संवैधानिक सीमाओं और आवश्यकताओं के अधीन है।

3. Its maximum duration can ordinarily extend to three years subject to the constitutional conditions.

   संवैधानिक शर्तों के अधीन इसकी अधिकतम अवधि सामान्यतः तीन वर्ष तक हो सकती है।

4. President's Rule can continue indefinitely without any Parliamentary approval.

   राष्ट्रपति शासन बिना किसी संसदीय अनुमोदन के अनिश्चितकाल तक जारी रह सकता है।

Correct Answer: (4) President's Rule can continue indefinitely without any Parliamentary approval.

Explanation:

1. Parliamentary approval is constitutionally required within two months. (✅)
2. After approval, it operates in six-month periods subject to constitutional requirements. (✅)
3. Extension beyond one year requires the special conditions specified by Article 356. (✅)
4. Parliamentary approval is essential for continuation. (❌)

29 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 365 is correct?

1. It gives States power to reject every Union direction.

   यह राज्यों को प्रत्येक संघीय निर्देश को अस्वीकार करने की शक्ति देता है।

2. Failure by a State to comply with or give effect to directions given by the Union under the Constitution may enable the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the State government cannot be carried on constitutionally.

   संविधान के तहत संघ द्वारा दिए गए निर्देशों का पालन करने या उन्हें प्रभावी करने में राज्य की विफलता से राष्ट्रपति यह मान सकते हैं कि ऐसी स्थिति उत्पन्न हो गई है जिसमें राज्य सरकार संविधान के अनुसार नहीं चलाई जा सकती।

3. It automatically imposes President's Rule without any Presidential action.

   यह राष्ट्रपति की किसी कार्रवाई के बिना स्वतः राष्ट्रपति शासन लागू कर देता है।

4. It applies only to financial directions issued by the Finance Commission.

   यह केवल वित्त आयोग द्वारा जारी वित्तीय निर्देशों पर लागू होता है।

Correct Answer: (2) Failure by a State to comply with or give effect to directions given by the Union under the Constitution may enable the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the State government cannot be carried on constitutionally.

Explanation:

1. Article 365 does not give States a general power to reject Union directions. (❌)
2. This correctly states the constitutional consequence contemplated by Article 365. (✅)
3. Article 365 does not automatically impose President's Rule; Article 356 action is required. (❌)
4. The provision is broader than Finance Commission directions. (❌)

30 Which one of the following statements about Article 263 is incorrect?

1. The President may establish an Inter-State Council if public interest would be served.

   यदि लोकहित की पूर्ति हो, तो राष्ट्रपति अंतर-राज्य परिषद की स्थापना कर सकते हैं।

2. The Council may inquire into disputes between States and advise upon them.

   परिषद राज्यों के बीच विवादों की जाँच कर उन पर सलाह दे सकती है।

3. The Council may discuss subjects of common interest to the Union and States.

   परिषद संघ और राज्यों के सामान्य हित के विषयों पर चर्चा कर सकती है।

4. Article 263 makes the Inter-State Council's recommendations legally binding on all States.

   अनुच्छेद 263 अंतर-राज्य परिषद की सिफारिशों को सभी राज्यों पर कानूनी रूप से बाध्यकारी बनाता है।

Correct Answer: (4) Article 263 makes the Inter-State Council's recommendations legally binding on all States.

Explanation:

1. Article 263 empowers the President to establish the Council. (✅)
2. Advising upon inter-State disputes is one contemplated function. (✅)
3. Discussion of common-interest subjects is expressly included. (✅)
4. The Council is advisory; its recommendations are not automatically legally binding. (❌)

31 Which one of the following statements regarding distribution of taxes between the Union and States is correct?

1. All taxes collected by the Union automatically belong exclusively to the Union.

   संघ द्वारा एकत्रित सभी कर स्वतः केवल संघ के होते हैं।

2. All taxes collected by States are automatically divisible with the Union.

   राज्यों द्वारा एकत्रित सभी कर स्वतः संघ के साथ विभाज्य होते हैं।

3. The Constitution specifically provides for assignment and distribution of certain taxes between the Union and States.

   संविधान संघ और राज्यों के बीच कुछ करों के आरोपण और वितरण के लिए विशेष प्रावधान करता है।

4. The Finance Commission can rewrite the constitutional tax powers of Parliament and State Legislatures.

   वित्त आयोग संसद और राज्य विधानमंडलों की संवैधानिक कर शक्तियों को पुनर्लेखित कर सकता है।

Correct Answer: (3) The Constitution specifically provides for assignment and distribution of certain taxes between the Union and States.

Explanation:

1. The Constitution distinguishes among various categories of taxes and their distribution. (❌)
2. State taxes are not generally divisible with the Union. (❌)
3. Articles 268 to 281 contain important provisions governing Union-State financial relations. (✅)
4. The Finance Commission recommends within the constitutional framework and cannot rewrite legislative competence. (❌)

32 Which one of the following statements regarding grants-in-aid is incorrect?

1. Article 275 provides for grants-in-aid of the revenues of States in need of assistance.

   अनुच्छेद 275 सहायता की आवश्यकता वाले राज्यों के राजस्व के लिए सहायता अनुदान का प्रावधान करता है।

2. Grants under Article 275 are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

   अनुच्छेद 275 के तहत अनुदान भारत की संचित निधि पर भारित होते हैं।

3. The Finance Commission recommends principles governing such grants.

   वित्त आयोग ऐसे अनुदानों को नियंत्रित करने वाले सिद्धांतों की सिफारिश करता है।

4. Article 275 grants are available only to States that have a Legislative Council.

   अनुच्छेद 275 के अनुदान केवल उन राज्यों को मिलते हैं जिनमें विधान परिषद है।

Correct Answer: (4) Article 275 grants are available only to States that have a Legislative Council.

Explanation:

1. Article 275 deals with grants-in-aid to States in need of assistance. (✅)
2. Such grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. (✅)
3. The Finance Commission recommends the principles governing these grants. (✅)
4. The existence of a Legislative Council is irrelevant to eligibility for such grants. (❌)

33 Which one of the following statements regarding borrowing by States is correct?

1. States have an unlimited constitutional power to borrow from any source without restrictions.

   राज्यों को बिना किसी प्रतिबंध के किसी भी स्रोत से उधार लेने की असीमित संवैधानिक शक्ति है।

2. States cannot borrow at all under the Constitution.

   संविधान के तहत राज्य बिल्कुल भी उधार नहीं ले सकते।

3. Only the Finance Commission can borrow on behalf of States.

   केवल वित्त आयोग ही राज्यों की ओर से उधार ले सकता है।

4. A State may borrow within India upon the security of its Consolidated Fund, subject to constitutional restrictions including those concerning outstanding Union loans.

   राज्य अपनी संचित निधि की प्रतिभूति पर भारत के भीतर उधार ले सकता है, जो बकाया संघीय ऋण से संबंधित संवैधानिक प्रतिबंधों सहित अन्य शर्तों के अधीन है।

Correct Answer: (4) A State may borrow within India upon the security of its Consolidated Fund, subject to constitutional restrictions including those concerning outstanding Union loans.

Explanation:

1. State borrowing is constitutionally regulated. (❌)
2. States possess borrowing power subject to Article 293. (❌)
3. The Finance Commission does not borrow on behalf of States. (❌)
4. Article 293 permits State borrowing within India subject to specified conditions. (✅)

34 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 293 is incorrect?

1. A State may borrow within India upon the security of its Consolidated Fund.

   राज्य अपनी संचित निधि की प्रतिभूति पर भारत के भीतर उधार ले सकता है।

2. If a State owes money to the Union, it may require the consent of the Government of India for further borrowing.

   यदि किसी राज्य पर संघ का ऋण बकाया है, तो आगे उधार लेने के लिए भारत सरकार की सहमति आवश्यक हो सकती है।

3. Conditions may be imposed while granting such consent.

   ऐसी सहमति देते समय शर्तें लगाई जा सकती हैं।

4. The Union Government must provide such consent automatically whenever a State requests borrowing.

   जब भी कोई राज्य उधार लेने का अनुरोध करे, संघ सरकार को ऐसी सहमति स्वतः देनी ही पड़ती है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Union Government must provide such consent automatically whenever a State requests borrowing.

Explanation:

1. Article 293 permits borrowing by States upon the security of their Consolidated Fund. (✅)
2. Outstanding Union loans can trigger the requirement of Union consent. (✅)
3. The Union may impose conditions while granting consent. (✅)
4. There is no constitutional requirement that consent must be automatically granted. (❌)

35 Which one of the following statements about Article 280 and local bodies is correct?

1. The Finance Commission has no constitutional relationship with Panchayats or Municipalities.

   वित्त आयोग का पंचायतों या नगरपालिकाओं से कोई संवैधानिक संबंध नहीं है।

2. The Finance Commission may recommend measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.

   वित्त आयोग पंचायतों और नगरपालिकाओं के संसाधनों की पूर्ति के लिए राज्य की संचित निधि को बढ़ाने के उपायों की सिफारिश कर सकता है।

3. Only the Election Commission can determine grants for Panchayats.

   केवल निर्वाचन आयोग पंचायतों के लिए अनुदान निर्धारित कर सकता है।

4. The Finance Commission directly administers Panchayat finances.

   वित्त आयोग पंचायतों के वित्त का प्रत्यक्ष प्रशासन करता है।

Correct Answer: (2) The Finance Commission may recommend measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.

Explanation:

1. Article 280 specifically includes Panchayats and Municipalities in the Finance Commission's recommendations. (❌)
2. This is expressly included in Article 280(3)(bb) and (c). (✅)
3. The Election Commission is concerned primarily with elections, not financial devolution. (❌)
4. The Finance Commission recommends measures; it does not administer local finances. (❌)

36 Which one of the following statements regarding the Union's power to give directions to States is incorrect?

1. The Union may direct a State regarding construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance.

   राष्ट्रीय या सैन्य महत्व के घोषित संचार साधनों के निर्माण और रखरखाव के संबंध में संघ राज्य को निर्देश दे सकता है।

2. The Union may give directions concerning protection of railways within a State.

   राज्य के भीतर रेलवे की सुरक्षा के संबंध में संघ निर्देश दे सकता है।

3. The Union may give directions under certain provisions to ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws.

   कुछ प्रावधानों के तहत संसद के कानूनों के अनुपालन को सुनिश्चित करने के लिए संघ निर्देश दे सकता है।

4. The Union can issue directions to States on every matter within the State List without any constitutional basis.

   संघ बिना किसी संवैधानिक आधार के राज्य सूची के प्रत्येक विषय पर राज्यों को निर्देश दे सकता है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Union can issue directions to States on every matter within the State List without any constitutional basis.

Explanation:

1. Article 257 includes directions concerning means of communication of national or military importance. (✅)
2. Article 257 contains provisions concerning protection of railways. (✅)
3. Article 256 enables directions concerning compliance with Parliamentary laws. (✅)
4. Union directions must have a constitutional or statutory basis; there is no unrestricted power over every State List matter. (❌)

37 Which one of the following statements regarding delegation of Union functions to States is correct?

1. Parliament can never confer functions on State authorities.

   संसद कभी भी राज्य प्राधिकारियों को कार्य नहीं सौंप सकती।

2. State Legislatures can transfer any Union executive function without constitutional authorization.

   राज्य विधानमंडल बिना संवैधानिक प्राधिकरण के किसी भी संघीय कार्यपालिका कार्य को हस्तांतरित कर सकते हैं।

3. The President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust functions of the Union to that State or its officers in certain circumstances.

   राष्ट्रपति कुछ परिस्थितियों में राज्य सरकार की सहमति से संघ के कार्य उस राज्य या उसके अधिकारियों को सौंप सकते हैं।

4. Only the Supreme Court can delegate Union executive functions to States.

   केवल सर्वोच्च न्यायालय ही संघ के कार्यपालिका कार्य राज्यों को सौंप सकता है।

Correct Answer: (3) The President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust functions of the Union to that State or its officers in certain circumstances.

Explanation:

1. The Constitution provides mechanisms for entrusting Union functions to States. (❌)
2. State Legislatures do not possess such unrestricted authority. (❌)
3. Article 258 provides for entrustment of Union functions to States with State Government consent. (✅)
4. The Supreme Court does not possess this executive delegation power. (❌)

38 Which one of the following statements about Article 258 is incorrect?

1. The President may, with the consent of the State Government, entrust functions in relation to matters within Union executive power to the State or its officers.

   राष्ट्रपति राज्य सरकार की सहमति से संघ की कार्यपालिका शक्ति के अंतर्गत आने वाले विषयों से संबंधित कार्य राज्य या उसके अधिकारियों को सौंप सकते हैं।

2. Such entrustment may be conditional or unconditional.

   ऐसा कार्य सौंपना सशर्त या बिना शर्त हो सकता है।

3. Parliament may by law confer powers and impose duties upon a State or its officers in certain circumstances.

   संसद कुछ परिस्थितियों में कानून द्वारा राज्य या उसके अधिकारियों को शक्तियाँ प्रदान और कर्तव्य अधिरोपित कर सकती है।

4. Article 258 permits the President to transfer the entire Union executive power permanently to any State.

   अनुच्छेद 258 राष्ट्रपति को संघ की पूरी कार्यपालिका शक्ति स्थायी रूप से किसी राज्य को हस्तांतरित करने की अनुमति देता है।

Correct Answer: (4) Article 258 permits the President to transfer the entire Union executive power permanently to any State.

Explanation:

1. Article 258 permits entrustment of certain Union functions with State consent. (✅)
2. The entrustment can be subject to conditions. (✅)
3. Article 258(2) recognizes Parliament's legislative power to confer powers and impose duties on States or officers. (✅)
4. There is no provision for permanently transferring the entire Union executive power. (❌)

39 Which one of the following statements regarding Article 258A is correct?

1. It allows the Union to surrender all its legislative powers to a State Legislature.

   यह संघ को अपनी सभी विधायी शक्तियाँ राज्य विधानमंडल को सौंपने की अनुमति देता है।

2. It deals exclusively with inter-State river water disputes.

   यह केवल अंतर-राज्यीय नदी जल विवादों से संबंधित है।

3. It allows the President to dissolve a State Legislature without Parliamentary approval.

   यह राष्ट्रपति को संसदीय अनुमोदन के बिना राज्य विधानमंडल भंग करने की अनुमति देता है।

4. The Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust functions in relation to matters within the State's executive power to the Union or its officers.

   राज्यपाल, भारत सरकार की सहमति से, राज्य की कार्यपालिका शक्ति के अंतर्गत आने वाले विषयों से संबंधित कार्य संघ या उसके अधिकारियों को सौंप सकता है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Governor of a State may, with the consent of the Government of India, entrust functions in relation to matters within the State's executive power to the Union or its officers.

Explanation:

1. Article 258A concerns executive functions, not surrender of legislative power. (❌)
2. River water disputes are addressed under Article 262. (❌)
3. Article 258A does not concern dissolution of State Legislatures. (❌)
4. This accurately describes Article 258A. (✅)

40 Which one of the following statements regarding Union-State administrative relations is incorrect?

1. The Union can issue directions to States under specified constitutional provisions.

   संघ निर्दिष्ट संवैधानिक प्रावधानों के तहत राज्यों को निर्देश जारी कर सकता है।

2. The Constitution seeks coordination between Union and State executive authorities.

   संविधान संघ और राज्य कार्यपालिका प्राधिकारियों के बीच समन्वय की व्यवस्था करता है।

3. All-India Services are an important institutional mechanism connecting Union and State administration.

   अखिल भारतीय सेवाएँ संघ और राज्य प्रशासन को जोड़ने वाली एक महत्वपूर्ण संस्थागत व्यवस्था हैं।

4. The Constitution completely separates Union and State administrations with no overlapping executive mechanisms.

   संविधान संघ और राज्य प्रशासन को पूरी तरह अलग करता है और किसी भी प्रकार की साझा कार्यपालिका व्यवस्था नहीं है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Constitution completely separates Union and State administrations with no overlapping executive mechanisms.

Explanation:

1. Several constitutional provisions permit Union directions to States. (✅)
2. Administrative coordination is an important feature of Indian federalism. (✅)
3. All-India Services operate across the Union-State administrative structure. (✅)
4. The Constitution contains numerous overlapping and coordinating administrative mechanisms. (❌)

41 Which one of the following statements regarding the Seventh Schedule is correct?

1. The Seventh Schedule contains only the Union List.

   सातवीं अनुसूची में केवल संघ सूची शामिल है।

2. The Seventh Schedule is entirely outside the Constitution's scheme of legislative distribution.

   सातवीं अनुसूची संविधान की विधायी शक्तियों के वितरण की व्यवस्था से पूरी तरह बाहर है।

3. The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.

   सातवीं अनुसूची में संघ सूची, राज्य सूची और समवर्ती सूची शामिल हैं।

4. The Seventh Schedule contains only subjects relating to local government.

   सातवीं अनुसूची में केवल स्थानीय शासन से संबंधित विषय हैं।

Correct Answer: (3) The Seventh Schedule contains the Union List, State List and Concurrent List.

Explanation:

1. The Seventh Schedule contains three legislative lists. (❌)
2. It is central to the constitutional distribution of legislative powers. (❌)
3. The three lists are the Union, State and Concurrent Lists. (✅)
4. Its scope extends far beyond local government. (❌)

42 Which one of the following statements about the Concurrent List is incorrect?

1. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can ordinarily legislate on Concurrent List subjects.

   सामान्यतः संसद और राज्य विधानमंडल दोनों समवर्ती सूची के विषयों पर कानून बना सकते हैं।

2. In case of repugnancy, Parliamentary legislation generally prevails subject to Article 254.

   असंगति की स्थिति में अनुच्छेद 254 के अधीन सामान्यतः संसदीय कानून प्रभावी होता है।

3. A State law on a Concurrent List matter may prevail in that State if it receives Presidential assent, subject to Parliament's subsequent power.

   समवर्ती सूची के विषय पर राज्य कानून राष्ट्रपति की स्वीकृति मिलने पर उस राज्य में प्रभावी हो सकता है, हालांकि संसद की बाद की शक्ति बनी रहती है।

4. A State law on the Concurrent List always prevails over an earlier Parliamentary law throughout India.

   समवर्ती सूची पर राज्य कानून पूरे भारत में हमेशा पहले के संसदीय कानून पर प्रभावी होता है।

Correct Answer: (4) A State law on the Concurrent List always prevails over an earlier Parliamentary law throughout India.

Explanation:

1. Both levels possess legislative competence over the Concurrent List. (✅)
2. Article 254 establishes the general rule of Parliamentary predominance in case of repugnancy. (✅)
3. Presidential assent can give the State law precedence within that State. (✅)
4. Such precedence is not throughout India and is subject to Parliament's subsequent legislation. (❌)

43 Which one of the following statements regarding Parliament's power over State List matters is incorrect?

1. Parliament can legislate on State List matters when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution under Article 249.

   अनुच्छेद 249 के तहत राज्यसभा प्रस्ताव पारित करे तो संसद राज्य सूची के विषयों पर कानून बना सकती है।

2. Parliament can legislate on State List matters during a National Emergency under Article 250.

   अनुच्छेद 250 के तहत राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल के दौरान संसद राज्य सूची के विषयों पर कानून बना सकती है।

3. Parliament can legislate on a State List matter when two or more States request it under Article 252.

   अनुच्छेद 252 के तहत दो या अधिक राज्य अनुरोध करें तो संसद राज्य सूची के विषय पर कानून बना सकती है।

4. Parliament can legislate on every State List subject merely because it has a larger number of members than a State Legislature.

   संसद केवल इसलिए राज्य सूची के प्रत्येक विषय पर कानून बना सकती है क्योंकि उसके सदस्यों की संख्या राज्य विधानमंडल से अधिक है।

Correct Answer: (4) Parliament can legislate on every State List subject merely because it has a larger number of members than a State Legislature.

Explanation:

1. Article 249 is one constitutional exception permitting Parliamentary legislation on State List matters. (✅)
2. Article 250 provides another exception during National Emergency. (✅)
3. Article 252 permits Parliament to legislate on requested State subjects. (✅)
4. Numerical strength of Parliament is not a constitutional ground for legislative competence. (❌)

44 Which one of the following statements regarding the effect of laws made under Articles 249 and 250 is correct?

1. Such laws permanently transfer the concerned State List subjects to the Union List.

   ऐसे कानून संबंधित राज्य सूची के विषयों को स्थायी रूप से संघ सूची में स्थानांतरित कर देते हैं।

2. A Parliamentary law made under these exceptional powers ceases to have effect after the constitutionally prescribed period, subject to the transitional protection for actions already taken.

   इन असाधारण शक्तियों के तहत बनाया गया संसदीय कानून संवैधानिक रूप से निर्धारित अवधि के बाद प्रभावी नहीं रहता, हालांकि पहले की गई कार्रवाइयों के लिए संक्रमणकालीन संरक्षण होता है।

3. Such laws automatically become constitutional amendments.

   ऐसे कानून स्वतः संविधान संशोधन बन जाते हैं।

4. Such laws can never be repealed by Parliament.

   ऐसे कानूनों को संसद कभी निरस्त नहीं कर सकती।

Correct Answer: (2) A Parliamentary law made under these exceptional powers ceases to have effect after the constitutionally prescribed period, subject to the transitional protection for actions already taken.

Explanation:

1. The underlying legislative competence of the State is not permanently transferred. (❌)
2. Articles 249 and 250 provide temporary exceptional legislative competence and transitional consequences. (✅)
3. Ordinary Parliamentary legislation does not become a constitutional amendment. (❌)
4. Parliament can repeal its own legislation subject to constitutional limitations. (❌)

45 Which one of the following statements regarding the principle of cooperative federalism in India is incorrect?

1. Institutions such as the GST Council facilitate Union-State cooperation.

   जीएसटी परिषद जैसी संस्थाएँ संघ-राज्य सहयोग को बढ़ावा देती हैं।

2. The Inter-State Council provides a forum for consultation and coordination.

   अंतर-राज्य परिषद परामर्श और समन्वय का मंच प्रदान करती है।

3. The Finance Commission supports fiscal coordination between the Union and States.

   वित्त आयोग संघ और राज्यों के बीच वित्तीय समन्वय में सहायता करता है।

4. Cooperative federalism means that States have no independent constitutional powers and must operate only as agents of the Union.

   सहकारी संघवाद का अर्थ है कि राज्यों के पास कोई स्वतंत्र संवैधानिक शक्ति नहीं है और वे केवल संघ के एजेंट के रूप में कार्य करते हैं।

Correct Answer: (4) Cooperative federalism means that States have no independent constitutional powers and must operate only as agents of the Union.

Explanation:

1. The GST Council is a major example of institutionalized Union-State cooperation. (✅)
2. The Inter-State Council facilitates consultation and coordination. (✅)
3. The Finance Commission is a key institution in fiscal federalism. (✅)
4. States possess constitutionally assigned legislative and executive powers; cooperative federalism does not make them Union agents. (❌)

46 Which one of the following statements regarding fiscal federalism is correct?

1. The Constitution gives States complete control over all major sources of taxation.

   संविधान राज्यों को सभी प्रमुख कर स्रोतों पर पूर्ण नियंत्रण देता है।

2. The Union has no constitutional role in distributing tax revenues to States.

   राज्यों को कर राजस्व वितरित करने में संघ की कोई संवैधानिक भूमिका नहीं है।

3. India's fiscal federalism combines tax assignment, tax devolution and grants-in-aid to accommodate differences in revenue capacity and expenditure responsibilities.

   भारत का राजकोषीय संघवाद राजस्व क्षमता और व्यय दायित्वों में अंतर को समायोजित करने के लिए कर निर्धारण, कर हस्तांतरण और सहायता अनुदान का संयोजन करता है।

4. The Finance Commission is the only institution involved in every aspect of Union-State finances.

   संघ-राज्य वित्त के प्रत्येक पहलू में केवल वित्त आयोग ही शामिल होता है।

Correct Answer: (3) India's fiscal federalism combines tax assignment, tax devolution and grants-in-aid to accommodate differences in revenue capacity and expenditure responsibilities.

Explanation:

1. Tax powers are constitutionally divided between Union and States. (❌)
2. The Union has significant constitutional responsibilities concerning tax distribution and grants. (❌)
3. These are core features of India's fiscal federal framework. (✅)
4. GST Council, Parliament, Finance Commission and other institutions also play roles. (❌)

47 Which one of the following statements regarding the Union's power to legislate on State matters in the national interest is correct?

1. The Lok Sabha alone can pass the special resolution under Article 249.

   अनुच्छेद 249 के तहत विशेष प्रस्ताव केवल लोकसभा ही पारित कर सकती है।

2. The President must personally introduce the Article 249 resolution in the Rajya Sabha.

   अनुच्छेद 249 का प्रस्ताव राष्ट्रपति को स्वयं राज्यसभा में प्रस्तुत करना आवश्यक है।

3. Article 249 can be invoked only during a National Emergency.

   अनुच्छेद 249 केवल राष्ट्रीय आपातकाल के दौरान लागू किया जा सकता है।

4. The Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution by the required special majority declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a State List matter.

   राज्यसभा आवश्यक विशेष बहुमत से यह घोषित करने वाला प्रस्ताव पारित कर सकती है कि राष्ट्रीय हित में संसद के लिए राज्य सूची के विषय पर कानून बनाना आवश्यक या उचित है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution by the required special majority declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a State List matter.

Explanation:

1. Article 249 specifically gives the Rajya Sabha this role. (❌)
2. The President does not introduce the resolution. (❌)
3. Article 249 does not require a National Emergency. (❌)
4. This accurately describes the mechanism under Article 249. (✅)

48 Which one of the following statements regarding the basic character of Indian federalism is incorrect?

1. The Constitution distributes legislative powers between the Union and States.

   संविधान संघ और राज्यों के बीच विधायी शक्तियों का वितरण करता है।

2. There are constitutional mechanisms for resolving or managing Union-State conflicts.

   संघ-राज्य संघर्षों के समाधान या प्रबंधन के लिए संवैधानिक तंत्र मौजूद हैं।

3. India combines federal features with a strong Centre.

   भारत संघीय विशेषताओं के साथ एक मजबूत केंद्र की व्यवस्था को जोड़ता है।

4. The Constitution creates a system in which State governments derive all their constitutional powers from ordinary directions of the Union Government rather than directly from the Constitution.

   संविधान ऐसी व्यवस्था बनाता है जिसमें राज्य सरकारों की सभी संवैधानिक शक्तियाँ संविधान के बजाय संघ सरकार के सामान्य निर्देशों से प्राप्त होती हैं।

Correct Answer: (4) The Constitution creates a system in which State governments derive all their constitutional powers from ordinary directions of the Union Government rather than directly from the Constitution.

Explanation:

1. The Constitution expressly distributes legislative powers between Union and States. (✅)
2. Inter-State Council, courts, Finance Commission and other mechanisms address federal issues. (✅)
3. Indian federalism has strong unitary features alongside federal characteristics. (✅)
4. State powers are constitutionally derived and cannot be reduced to ordinary Union directions. (❌)

49 Which one of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court and Centre-State disputes is correct?

1. The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction over disputes involving the Union and States.

   संघ और राज्यों से जुड़े विवादों पर सर्वोच्च न्यायालय का कोई अधिकार क्षेत्र नहीं है।

2. Only the President can finally adjudicate constitutional disputes between the Union and States.

   संघ और राज्यों के बीच संवैधानिक विवादों का अंतिम निर्णय केवल राष्ट्रपति कर सकते हैं।

3. High Courts have exclusive jurisdiction over every dispute between the Union and a State.

   संघ और राज्य के बीच प्रत्येक विवाद पर केवल उच्च न्यायालयों का विशेष अधिकार क्षेत्र है।

4. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in certain disputes involving the Union and States or among States under Article 131, subject to its constitutional scope.

   अनुच्छेद 131 के तहत सर्वोच्च न्यायालय को संघ और राज्यों या राज्यों के बीच कुछ विवादों पर मूल अधिकारिता प्राप्त है, जो उसके संवैधानिक दायरे के अधीन है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in certain disputes involving the Union and States or among States under Article 131, subject to its constitutional scope.

Explanation:

1. The Supreme Court does have original jurisdiction over specified federal disputes. (❌)
2. The President is not a judicial adjudicator of such disputes. (❌)
3. High Courts do not have exclusive jurisdiction over every Union-State dispute. (❌)
4. Article 131 provides original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in specified federal disputes. (✅)

50 Which one of the following statements provides the most accurate description of Centre-State relations under the Constitution of India?

1. The Constitution establishes a completely unitary system in which States have no constitutionally protected sphere of authority.

   संविधान पूर्णतः एकात्मक व्यवस्था स्थापित करता है जिसमें राज्यों के पास कोई संवैधानिक रूप से संरक्षित अधिकार-क्षेत्र नहीं है।

2. The Constitution establishes a completely rigid federation in which Parliament can never legislate on State List matters.

   संविधान पूर्णतः कठोर संघीय व्यवस्था स्थापित करता है जिसमें संसद कभी भी राज्य सूची के विषयों पर कानून नहीं बना सकती।

3. The Constitution leaves all Centre-State relations to conventions and does not contain detailed provisions.

   संविधान संघ-राज्य संबंधों को पूरी तरह परंपराओं पर छोड़ देता है और इसमें विस्तृत प्रावधान नहीं हैं।

4. The Constitution establishes a federal distribution of powers while providing several mechanisms that strengthen the Union in matters of national interest, emergencies, inter-State coordination and fiscal administration.

   संविधान शक्तियों के संघीय वितरण की स्थापना करता है, साथ ही राष्ट्रीय हित, आपातकाल, अंतर-राज्यीय समन्वय और वित्तीय प्रशासन के मामलों में संघ को मजबूत करने वाली कई व्यवस्थाएँ भी प्रदान करता है।

Correct Answer: (4) The Constitution establishes a federal distribution of powers while providing several mechanisms that strengthen the Union in matters of national interest, emergencies, inter-State coordination and fiscal administration.

Explanation:

1. States possess constitutionally assigned powers and are not merely administrative units. (❌)
2. Parliament can legislate on State List matters in several constitutionally specified circumstances. (❌)
3. The Constitution contains extensive provisions on legislative, administrative and financial relations. (❌)
4. This best captures the federal structure combined with a strong Centre characteristic of Indian constitutionalism. (✅)

1 Match the Following:

Union List State List Concurrent List Residuary subjects

Parliament State Legislature Both Parliament and State Legislature Parliament under Article 248 President

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	C	D
(B)	B	C	A	D
(C)	A	C	B	E
(D)	A	B	C	A

Correct Answer: (D) A-B-C-A

1. Union List - A - Parliament - Parliament has exclusive power over Union List subjects.
2. State List - B - State Legislature - States ordinarily legislate on State List subjects.
3. Concurrent List - C - Both Parliament and State Legislature - Both levels can legislate subject to constitutional rules.
4. Residuary subjects - A - Parliament - Residuary legislative power belongs to Parliament.

2 Match the Following:

Article 245 Article 246 Article 248 Article 249

Residuary legislative powers Parliamentary legislation on State List in national interest Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures Subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures Inter-State trade and commerce

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	C	A	D	B

Correct Answer: (B) C-D-A-B

1. Article 245 - C - Extent of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures - It deals with territorial extent of legislative laws.
2. Article 246 - D - Subject-matter of laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures - It distributes legislative subjects.
3. Article 248 - A - Residuary legislative powers - Parliament has residuary legislative competence.
4. Article 249 - B - Parliamentary legislation on State List in national interest - Rajya Sabha resolution enables this power.

3 Match the Following:

Article 250 Article 252 Article 253 Article 254

International agreements Inconsistency between Central and State laws Parliamentary legislation during Emergency Legislation for two or more States by consent Financial emergency

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	A	B
(B)	D	C	B	A
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (C) C-D-A-B

1. Article 250 - C - Parliamentary legislation during Emergency - Parliament may legislate on State List during National Emergency.
2. Article 252 - D - Legislation for two or more States by consent - States may request Parliament to legislate on State subjects.
3. Article 253 - A - International agreements - Parliament can legislate to implement treaties and international agreements.
4. Article 254 - B - Inconsistency between Central and State laws - It deals with repugnancy between Parliamentary and State laws.

4 Match the Following:

Article 263 Article 256 Article 257 Article 258

Control of Union over States in certain cases Inter-State Council Obligation of States and Union Union conferring powers on States State public service commissions

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	B	A	D	C
(D)	C	D	B	A

Correct Answer: (A) B-C-A-D

1. Article 263 - B - Inter-State Council - The President may establish an Inter-State Council under this Article.
2. Article 256 - C - Obligation of States and Union - States must ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws.
3. Article 257 - A - Control of Union over States in certain cases - It provides for Union directions to States in specified matters.
4. Article 258 - D - Union conferring powers on States - The President may entrust Union functions to States.

5 Match the Following:

Article 258A Article 262 Article 261 Article 260

Adjudication of inter-State water disputes Public acts, records and judicial proceedings Union jurisdiction outside India State conferring functions on Union Inter-State Council

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	D	A	B	C
(C)	D	B	A	C
(D)	A	D	C	B

Correct Answer: (B) D-A-B-C

1. Article 258A - D - State conferring functions on Union - A State may entrust functions to the Union with consent.
2. Article 262 - A - Adjudication of inter-State water disputes - Parliament may provide for adjudication of such disputes.
3. Article 261 - B - Public acts, records and judicial proceedings - Full faith and credit applies to these throughout India.
4. Article 260 - C - Union jurisdiction outside India - The Union may undertake jurisdiction in foreign territories by agreement.

6 Match the Following:

Administrative relations Legislative relations Financial relations Judicial relations

Distribution of taxing powers Union directions to States Distribution of legislative subjects Integrated judicial system Emergency provisions

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	C	B	D	A
(C)	B	A	C	D
(D)	D	C	B	A

Correct Answer: (A) B-C-A-D

1. Administrative relations - B - Union directions to States - Articles 256-263 primarily regulate administrative relations.
2. Legislative relations - C - Distribution of legislative subjects - Articles 245-255 govern legislative relations.
3. Financial relations - A - Distribution of taxing powers - Articles 268-293 regulate Union-State financial relations.
4. Judicial relations - D - Integrated judicial system - India has an integrated judicial structure serving Union and States.

7 Match the Following:

Article 268 Article 269 Article 270 Article 271

Taxes levied and collected by Union but assigned to States Taxes levied and collected by Union and distributed between Union and States Surcharge for Union purposes Taxes on inter-State supplies Grants-in-aid

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	A	D	B	C
(C)	A	B	D	C
(D)	C	A	B	D

Correct Answer: (B) A-D-B-C

1. Article 268 - A - Taxes levied and collected by Union but assigned to States - Certain duties are assigned to States under Article 268.
2. Article 269 - D - Taxes on inter-State supplies - Article 269 concerns certain taxes on inter-State transactions.
3. Article 270 - B - Taxes levied and collected by Union and distributed between Union and States - It forms an important part of tax devolution.
4. Article 271 - C - Surcharge for Union purposes - Parliament may impose surcharges on specified taxes.

8 Match the Following:

Article 275 Article 280 Article 281 Article 282

Recommendations of Finance Commission Grants from Union to certain States Finance Commission Expenditure from revenues by Union or State for any public purpose Contingency Fund

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	C	B	D	A
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (A) B-C-A-D

1. Article 275 - B - Grants from Union to certain States - It provides for statutory grants-in-aid.
2. Article 280 - C - Finance Commission - The President constitutes the Finance Commission.
3. Article 281 - A - Recommendations of Finance Commission - The President causes its recommendations to be laid before Parliament.
4. Article 282 - D - Expenditure from revenues by Union or State for any public purpose - It permits grants for public purposes beyond ordinary legislative subjects.

9 Match the Following:

Article 285 Article 289 Article 286 Article 288

Exemption of State property from Union taxation Exemption of State taxation on certain water or electricity Restrictions on taxation of sale or purchase of goods Exemption of Union property from State taxation Taxation of agricultural income

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	D	C
(B)	D	A	C	B
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	B	D	C	A

Correct Answer: (B) D-A-C-B

1. Article 285 - D - Exemption of Union property from State taxation - Union property is generally exempt from State taxation.
2. Article 289 - A - Exemption of State property from Union taxation - State property and income are generally protected from Union taxation subject to exceptions.
3. Article 286 - C - Restrictions on taxation of sale or purchase of goods - It restricts State taxation of specified sales and purchases.
4. Article 288 - B - Exemption of State taxation on certain water or electricity - It concerns taxation of water or electricity in specified cases.

10 Match the Following:

Finance Commission GST Council Inter-State Council National Development Council

Cooperative federal consultation Taxation under GST framework Fiscal distribution and grants Planning-related coordination body Election disputes

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	B	C	D	A
(C)	C	A	B	D
(D)	D	B	C	A

Correct Answer: (A) C-B-A-D

1. Finance Commission - C - Fiscal distribution and grants - It recommends tax devolution and grants-in-aid.
2. GST Council - B - Taxation under GST framework - It recommends matters concerning GST.
3. Inter-State Council - A - Cooperative federal consultation - It promotes coordination among governments.
4. National Development Council - D - Planning-related coordination body - It historically provided a forum for development coordination.

11 Match the Following:

Article 249 Article 250 Article 252 Article 253

National interest resolution National Emergency State consent International obligations President's Rule

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	D	C
(B)	C	B	A	D
(C)	A	B	C	D
(D)	A	C	B	D

Correct Answer: (C) A-B-C-D

1. Article 249 - A - National interest resolution - Rajya Sabha may authorize Parliament to legislate on State List in national interest.
2. Article 250 - B - National Emergency - During Emergency Parliament may legislate on State List.
3. Article 252 - C - State consent - Two or more States may request Parliament to legislate on State subjects.
4. Article 253 - D - International obligations - It enables implementation of treaties and international agreements.

12 Match the Following:

Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249 National Emergency under Article 250 State request under Article 252 Treaty implementation under Article 253

Parliament legislates for requesting States Parliament legislates on State List during Emergency Parliament legislates to implement international obligations Parliament legislates in national interest Parliament legislates on Union List only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	B	A	C
(B)	A	D	B	C
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (A) D-B-A-C

1. Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 249 - D - Parliament legislates in national interest - The special legislative authority arises from a Rajya Sabha resolution.
2. National Emergency under Article 250 - B - Parliament legislates on State List during Emergency - Emergency temporarily expands Parliamentary legislative competence.
3. State request under Article 252 - A - Parliament legislates for requesting States - Parliament legislates on the State subject for consenting States.
4. Treaty implementation under Article 253 - C - Parliament legislates to implement international obligations - International commitments can justify Parliamentary legislation.

13 Match the Following:

Article 254(1) Article 254(2) Article 255 Article 256

Requirement as to recommendations or previous sanctions Parliamentary law prevails in case of repugnancy State law with Presidential assent may prevail in that State Obligation of States and Union Inter-State water disputes

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	B	C	A	D
(C)	B	A	D	C
(D)	A	B	C	D

Correct Answer: (B) B-C-A-D

1. Article 254(1) - B - Parliamentary law prevails in case of repugnancy - Union law generally prevails over inconsistent State law.
2. Article 254(2) - C - State law with Presidential assent may prevail in that State - Presidential assent permits State law to prevail within that State subject to Parliamentary override.
3. Article 255 - A - Requirement as to recommendations or previous sanctions - It addresses procedural requirements for legislative validity.
4. Article 256 - D - Obligation of States and Union - States must ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws.

14 Match the Following:

Repugnancy Pith and substance Colourable legislation Territorial nexus

Real nature and character of legislation Substance of law determines legislative competence Legislative power based on sufficient territorial connection Indirect doing of what cannot be done directly Financial emergency

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	D	C
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	B	C	A	D
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (A) B-A-D-C

1. Repugnancy - B - Substance of law determines legislative competence - It concerns inconsistency between laws operating in the Concurrent field.
2. Pith and substance - A - Real nature and character of legislation - The true nature of legislation is examined to determine competence.
3. Colourable legislation - D - Indirect doing of what cannot be done directly - Legislative competence cannot be circumvented indirectly.
4. Territorial nexus - C - Legislative power based on sufficient territorial connection - A sufficient connection may validate territorial application.

15 Match the Following:

Doctrine of pith and substance Doctrine of colourable legislation Doctrine of repugnancy Doctrine of territorial nexus

Concurrent field conflict True nature of legislation Territorial connection Constitutional prohibition against indirect exercise Delegated legislation

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	C	D
(B)	B	C	A	D
(C)	B	D	A	C
(D)	C	A	D	B

Correct Answer: (C) B-D-A-C

1. Doctrine of pith and substance - B - True nature of legislation - The law is examined according to its true character.
2. Doctrine of colourable legislation - D - Constitutional prohibition against indirect exercise - What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly.
3. Doctrine of repugnancy - A - Concurrent field conflict - It addresses conflict between Central and State laws in the Concurrent field.
4. Doctrine of territorial nexus - C - Territorial connection - A State law may operate beyond its territory when sufficient nexus exists.

16 Match the Following:

Inter-State Council Zonal Councils Finance Commission GST Council

Constitutional body under Article 280 Statutory bodies under States Reorganisation Act, 1956 Constitutional body under Article 279A Constitutional body under Article 263 Extra-constitutional body for planning

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	B	A	C
(B)	A	D	B	C
(C)	D	A	C	B
(D)	C	B	D	A

Correct Answer: (A) D-B-A-C

1. Inter-State Council - D - Constitutional body under Article 263 - The Constitution provides for its establishment.
2. Zonal Councils - B - Statutory bodies under States Reorganisation Act, 1956 - They are statutory rather than constitutional bodies.
3. Finance Commission - A - Constitutional body under Article 280 - It is constituted by the President under the Constitution.
4. GST Council - C - Constitutional body under Article 279A - The 101st Amendment created the constitutional GST Council.

17 Match the Following:

North Eastern Council Western Zonal Council Eastern Zonal Council Central Zonal Council

Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Rajasthan Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	D	B	C
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	D	C	B	A

Correct Answer: (B) C-D-A-B

1. North Eastern Council - C - Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim - It covers the North-Eastern region.
2. Western Zonal Council - D - Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Rajasthan - These States form the Western Zonal Council.
3. Eastern Zonal Council - A - Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal - Bihar is part of the Eastern Zonal Council.
4. Central Zonal Council - B - Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh - These four States constitute the Central Zonal Council.

18 Match the Following:

Article 263 Article 279A Article 280 Article 312

Finance Commission Inter-State Council All India Services GST Council Election Commission

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	A	C
(B)	D	B	C	A
(C)	B	A	D	C
(D)	C	D	A	B

Correct Answer: (A) B-D-A-C

1. Article 263 - B - Inter-State Council - It provides for an intergovernmental coordination mechanism.
2. Article 279A - D - GST Council - It establishes the GST Council.
3. Article 280 - A - Finance Commission - It provides for constitution of the Finance Commission.
4. Article 312 - C - All India Services - It provides for creation of All India Services through Parliamentary law.

19 Match the Following:

All India Services Inter-State Council Zonal Councils Finance Commission

Promotes regional cooperation Provides fiscal federal recommendations Strengthens administrative integration Promotes Centre-State and inter-State consultation Conducts elections

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	D	C	B
(B)	B	C	A	D
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (C) C-D-A-B

1. All India Services - C - Strengthens administrative integration - They provide common administrative services across Union and States.
2. Inter-State Council - D - Promotes Centre-State and inter-State consultation - Its purpose includes coordination and discussion of common interests.
3. Zonal Councils - A - Promotes regional cooperation - They encourage cooperation among neighbouring States.
4. Finance Commission - B - Provides fiscal federal recommendations - It recommends tax distribution and grants.

20 Match the Following:

President's power under Article 258 Governor's power under Article 258A Union directions under Article 257 State compliance under Article 256

State may entrust functions to Union State must ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws Union may entrust functions to State Union may issue directions in specified cases Parliament may abolish State Legislature

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	D	B
(B)	A	C	B	D
(C)	C	D	A	B
(D)	D	B	C	A

Correct Answer: (A) C-A-D-B

1. President's power under Article 258 - C - Union may entrust functions to State - The President may confer Union functions on State authorities.
2. Governor's power under Article 258A - A - State may entrust functions to Union - The Governor may entrust State functions to the Union with consent.
3. Union directions under Article 257 - D - Union may issue directions in specified cases - The Union can issue directions to protect specified national interests.
4. State compliance under Article 256 - B - State must ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws - States have a constitutional obligation to comply.

21 Match the Following:

National Emergency President's Rule Financial Emergency Normal constitutional arrangement

Article 356 Article 360 Articles 245-255 ordinarily operate Article 250 affects State List legislative competence Article 352 only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	A	B	C
(B)	A	D	C	B
(C)	D	B	A	C
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (A) D-A-B-C

1. National Emergency - D - Article 250 affects State List legislative competence - During Emergency Parliament can legislate on State List.
2. President's Rule - A - Article 356 - Article 356 concerns failure of constitutional machinery in a State.
3. Financial Emergency - B - Article 360 - Article 360 provides for Financial Emergency.
4. Normal constitutional arrangement - C - Articles 245-255 ordinarily operate - These provisions regulate ordinary legislative relations.

22 Match the Following:

Article 356 Article 365 Article 355 Article 357

Parliamentary exercise of State legislative powers during President's Rule Failure to comply with Union directions Union duty to protect States Provisions in case of constitutional machinery failure Inter-State Council

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	D	C
(B)	D	B	C	A
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	C	D	A	B

Correct Answer: (B) D-B-C-A

1. Article 356 - D - Provisions in case of constitutional machinery failure - It authorizes President's Rule in a State.
2. Article 365 - B - Failure to comply with Union directions - Such failure may support action under Article 356.
3. Article 355 - C - Union duty to protect States - The Union must protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance.
4. Article 357 - A - Parliamentary exercise of State legislative powers during President's Rule - It regulates exercise of legislative powers during Article 356 operation.

23 Match the Following:

Article 266 Article 267 Article 280 Article 293

Borrowing by States Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts Contingency Fund Finance Commission GST Council

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	D	A
(B)	C	B	A	D
(C)	B	D	C	A
(D)	D	C	B	A

Correct Answer: (A) B-C-D-A

1. Article 266 - B - Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts - It provides for Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts.
2. Article 267 - C - Contingency Fund - It provides for the Contingency Fund of India and States.
3. Article 280 - D - Finance Commission - It provides for the Finance Commission.
4. Article 293 - A - Borrowing by States - It regulates State borrowing.

24 Match the Following:

Tax devolution Grants-in-aid GST compensation State borrowing

Article 293 Finance Commission recommendations GST framework and statutory arrangements Article 275 Article 360

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	B	D	C	A
(C)	B	A	D	C
(D)	D	B	C	A

Correct Answer: (B) B-D-C-A

1. Tax devolution - B - Finance Commission recommendations - Finance Commission recommends distribution of divisible tax proceeds.
2. Grants-in-aid - D - Article 275 - Article 275 provides statutory grants to States.
3. GST compensation - C - GST framework and statutory arrangements - Compensation arrangements arose from the GST constitutional and statutory framework.
4. State borrowing - A - Article 293 - State borrowing is regulated under Article 293.

25 Match the Following:

Divisible Pool Finance Commission Article 270 Article 271

Constitutional body recommending distribution Taxes distributed between Union and States Surcharge for Union purposes Taxes generally available for distribution subject to constitutional provisions State List taxation only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	A	B	C
(B)	A	D	C	B
(C)	D	B	A	C
(D)	C	A	D	B

Correct Answer: (A) D-A-B-C

1. Divisible Pool - D - Taxes generally available for distribution subject to constitutional provisions - The divisible pool forms the basis of tax devolution.
2. Finance Commission - A - Constitutional body recommending distribution - It recommends distribution between Union and States.
3. Article 270 - B - Taxes distributed between Union and States - It provides for distribution of specified taxes.
4. Article 271 - C - Surcharge for Union purposes - Surcharges are for Union purposes and are not part of the divisible pool.

26 Match the Following:

Article 268A Article 269A Article 270 Article 271

IGST on inter-State supplies Omitted service tax provision Distribution of certain taxes Surcharge for Union purposes GST Council recommendations

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	C	D	B
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	B	A	C	D
(D)	B	D	A	C

Correct Answer: (C) B-A-C-D

1. Article 268A - B - Omitted service tax provision - Article 268A relating to service tax was omitted after the GST constitutional changes.
2. Article 269A - A - IGST on inter-State supplies - It governs levy and collection of GST on inter-State supplies.
3. Article 270 - C - Distribution of certain taxes - It provides for distribution of specified Union taxes.
4. Article 271 - D - Surcharge for Union purposes - It permits Parliament to impose certain surcharges.

27 Match the Following:

GST Council Finance Commission Inter-State Council Comptroller and Auditor General

Audit of Union and State accounts Fiscal devolution GST recommendations Intergovernmental coordination Inter-State water adjudication

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	B	C	A	D
(C)	D	A	C	B
(D)	C	D	B	A

Correct Answer: (A) C-B-D-A

1. GST Council - C - GST recommendations - It recommends matters relating to GST.
2. Finance Commission - B - Fiscal devolution - It recommends tax distribution and grants.
3. Inter-State Council - D - Intergovernmental coordination - It provides a forum for coordination and discussion.
4. Comptroller and Auditor General - A - Audit of Union and State accounts - CAG audits public accounts under the constitutional framework.

28 Match the Following:

GST Council Chairperson GST Council Union Minister member State GST representative Finance Commission Chairperson

Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance Union Minister in charge of Finance One Minister nominated by each State Government Appointed by President Chief Justice of India

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	C	D
(B)	A	B	D	C
(C)	B	C	A	D
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (A) B-A-C-D

1. GST Council Chairperson - B - Union Minister in charge of Finance - The Union Finance Minister chairs the GST Council.
2. GST Council Union Minister member - A - Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance - The specified Union Minister of State is a member.
3. State GST representative - C - One Minister nominated by each State Government - Each State nominates a Minister as its representative.
4. Finance Commission Chairperson - D - Appointed by President - The President constitutes the Finance Commission and appoints its members.

29 Match the Following:

Article 301 Article 302 Article 303 Article 304

Parliament's power to impose restrictions Restrictions on legislative preference or discrimination Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse State restrictions subject to conditions Inter-State Council establishment

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	A	C	D	B
(C)	C	B	A	D
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (A) C-A-B-D

1. Article 301 - C - Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse - It declares freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse throughout India.
2. Article 302 - A - Parliament's power to impose restrictions - Parliament may impose restrictions in the public interest subject to constitutional conditions.
3. Article 303 - B - Restrictions on legislative preference or discrimination - It restricts discriminatory preferences among States.
4. Article 304 - D - State restrictions subject to conditions - States may impose specified taxes and reasonable restrictions subject to conditions.

30 Match the Following:

Article 301 Article 302 Article 303(1) Article 304(a)

Parliament cannot ordinarily discriminate between States State may tax imported goods without discrimination Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse Parliament may restrict trade in public interest President's Rule

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	A	B	C
(B)	C	D	A	B
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	B	C	A	D

Correct Answer: (B) C-D-A-B

1. Article 301 - C - Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse - It establishes the general constitutional freedom.
2. Article 302 - D - Parliament may restrict trade in public interest - Parliament may impose restrictions in public interest.
3. Article 303(1) - A - Parliament cannot ordinarily discriminate between States - It prohibits discriminatory legislative preferences.
4. Article 304(a) - B - State may tax imported goods without discrimination - States may impose non-discriminatory taxes on goods from other States.

31 Match the Following:

Article 307 Article 308 Article 309 Article 310

Recruitment and conditions of service Interpretation for Part XIV Tenure of office Authority for carrying out Articles 301-304 All India Services

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	B	A	C
(B)	A	D	C	B
(C)	D	C	B	A
(D)	C	B	A	D

Correct Answer: (A) D-B-A-C

1. Article 307 - D - Authority for carrying out Articles 301-304 - Parliament may appoint an authority for these purposes.
2. Article 308 - B - Interpretation for Part XIV - It provides interpretation provisions for services under Part XIV.
3. Article 309 - A - Recruitment and conditions of service - It governs recruitment and service conditions.
4. Article 310 - C - Tenure of office - It embodies the doctrine of pleasure subject to constitutional safeguards.

32 Match the Following:

Article 311 Article 312 Article 315 Article 320

All India Services Union and State Public Service Commissions Safeguards against dismissal or removal Functions of Public Service Commissions Inter-State Council

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	C	B	D
(B)	C	A	B	D
(C)	C	B	D	A
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (B) C-A-B-D

1. Article 311 - C - Safeguards against dismissal or removal - It provides safeguards to civil servants.
2. Article 312 - A - All India Services - It provides the constitutional basis for All India Services.
3. Article 315 - B - Union and State Public Service Commissions - It provides for Public Service Commissions.
4. Article 320 - D - Functions of Public Service Commissions - It specifies their constitutional functions.

33 Match the Following:

Single citizenship Integrated judiciary All India Services Residuary powers

Common citizenship of India Unified judicial hierarchy Parliamentary legislative competence Administrative integration State legislative supremacy

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	D	C
(B)	B	A	C	D
(C)	A	D	B	C
(D)	C	B	D	A

Correct Answer: (A) A-B-D-C

1. Single citizenship - A - Common citizenship of India - Indian constitutional citizenship is single rather than dual.
2. Integrated judiciary - B - Unified judicial hierarchy - The Supreme Court heads an integrated judicial system.
3. All India Services - D - Administrative integration - They serve both Union and State administrative needs.
4. Residuary powers - C - Parliamentary legislative competence - Residuary legislative powers belong to Parliament.

34 Match the Following:

Strong Centre Federal division of powers Cooperative federalism Competitive federalism

Constitutional allocation of subjects Union predominance in certain constitutional situations Joint policy-making between governments States competing for investment and performance Judicial supremacy over Parliament

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	C	D
(B)	B	A	C	D
(C)	D	A	B	C
(D)	B	C	D	A

Correct Answer: (B) B-A-C-D

1. Strong Centre - B - Union predominance in certain constitutional situations - The Constitution gives the Union significant powers.
2. Federal division of powers - A - Constitutional allocation of subjects - The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative subjects.
3. Cooperative federalism - C - Joint policy-making between governments - It emphasizes collaboration between levels of government.
4. Competitive federalism - D - States competing for investment and performance - States may compete to improve governance and economic outcomes.

35 Match the Following:

Union List State List Concurrent List Residuary field

Criminal law Defence Police Unenumerated subjects Agriculture only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	C	A	D
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	B	A	D	C
(D)	D	C	B	A

Correct Answer: (A) B-C-A-D

1. Union List - B - Defence - Defence is a Union List subject.
2. State List - C - Police - Police is primarily a State List subject.
3. Concurrent List - A - Criminal law - Criminal law is included in the Concurrent List.
4. Residuary field - D - Unenumerated subjects - Subjects not enumerated in the three lists fall within residuary competence.

36 Match the Following:

Public order Defence Education Banking

Union List State List Concurrent List Union List Local List

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	B	A	C	D
(C)	B	D	A	C
(D)	A	B	C	D

Correct Answer: (B) B-A-C-D

1. Public order - B - State List - Public order is primarily a State subject.
2. Defence - A - Union List - Defence is exclusively within Union legislative competence.
3. Education - C - Concurrent List - Education was moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment.
4. Banking - D - Union List - Banking is a Union List subject.

37 Match the Following:

Article 246 Article 246A Article 248 Article 254

Special GST legislative power Residuary powers Subject-matter of laws Repugnancy Inter-State Council

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	A	C	D	B
(C)	C	D	B	A
(D)	B	A	C	D

Correct Answer: (A) C-A-B-D

1. Article 246 - C - Subject-matter of laws - It distributes legislative competence among the lists.
2. Article 246A - A - Special GST legislative power - It provides special legislative competence for GST.
3. Article 248 - B - Residuary powers - Parliament has exclusive residuary legislative power.
4. Article 254 - D - Repugnancy - It deals with inconsistency between Parliamentary and State laws.

38 Match the Following:

Article 246A(1) Article 246A(2) Article 269A Article 279A

GST Council Parliamentary power over inter-State GST Union and States' GST legislative power Levy and collection of inter-State GST Finance Commission

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	B	C	A	D
(C)	C	D	B	A
(D)	D	B	C	A

Correct Answer: (A) C-B-D-A

1. Article 246A(1) - C - Union and States' GST legislative power - It gives Parliament and State Legislatures GST legislative competence.
2. Article 246A(2) - B - Parliamentary power over inter-State GST - Parliament has exclusive power over inter-State GST.
3. Article 269A - D - Levy and collection of inter-State GST - It concerns GST on inter-State supplies.
4. Article 279A - A - GST Council - It establishes the constitutional GST Council.

39 Match the Following:

GST Council recommendations Finance Commission recommendations Inter-State Council recommendations Zonal Council discussions

Fiscal distribution GST policy coordination Regional cooperation Intergovernmental coordination Judicial appointments

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	A	D	C
(B)	A	B	C	D
(C)	B	D	A	C
(D)	C	A	D	B

Correct Answer: (A) B-A-D-C

1. GST Council recommendations - B - GST policy coordination - The Council recommends important GST-related matters.
2. Finance Commission recommendations - A - Fiscal distribution - It recommends tax devolution and grants.
3. Inter-State Council recommendations - D - Intergovernmental coordination - It considers common interests among governments.
4. Zonal Council discussions - C - Regional cooperation - Zonal Councils encourage cooperation among neighbouring States.

40 Match the Following:

Inter-State water dispute Inter-State trade freedom Inter-State Council Inter-State criminal jurisdiction

Article 301 Article 263 Article 262 Criminal Procedure and related laws Article 280

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	A	C	D	B
(C)	C	B	A	D
(D)	D	A	C	B

Correct Answer: (A) C-A-B-D

1. Inter-State water dispute - C - Article 262 - Article 262 specifically addresses inter-State water disputes.
2. Inter-State trade freedom - A - Article 301 - Article 301 declares freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse.
3. Inter-State Council - B - Article 263 - Article 263 provides for the Inter-State Council.
4. Inter-State criminal jurisdiction - D - Criminal Procedure and related laws - Criminal jurisdiction is governed by relevant criminal laws and constitutional principles.

41 Match the Following:

Article 262(1) Article 262(2) Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 River Boards Act, 1956

Parliament may exclude Supreme Court and other courts' jurisdiction Parliament may provide adjudication of water disputes Framework for adjudication of specified inter-State water disputes Provision concerning regulation and development of inter-State rivers Finance Commission

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	C	D
(B)	B	A	C	D
(C)	B	C	D	A
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (B) B-A-C-D

1. Article 262(1) - B - Parliament may provide adjudication of water disputes - It empowers Parliament to provide for adjudication.
2. Article 262(2) - A - Parliament may exclude Supreme Court and other courts' jurisdiction - Parliament may exclude judicial jurisdiction over such disputes.
3. Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 - C - Framework for adjudication of specified inter-State water disputes - It provides the statutory mechanism for water dispute adjudication.
4. River Boards Act, 1956 - D - Provision concerning regulation and development of inter-State rivers - It provides for river boards for specified purposes.

42 Match the Following:

President Rajya Sabha State Legislature Parliament

May request legislation under Article 252 through resolutions of two or more States May authorize Parliament to legislate on State List under Article 249 May establish Inter-State Council under Article 263 May legislate to implement international agreements under Article 253 May appoint State Governor

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	A	D
(B)	D	C	B	A
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	B	D	A	C

Correct Answer: (A) C-B-A-D

1. President - C - May establish Inter-State Council under Article 263 - The President may establish the Council if it serves specified purposes.
2. Rajya Sabha - B - May authorize Parliament to legislate on State List under Article 249 - A special resolution of Rajya Sabha triggers Article 249.
3. State Legislature - A - May request legislation under Article 252 through resolutions of two or more States - States can request Parliament to legislate on specified State subjects.
4. Parliament - D - May legislate to implement international agreements under Article 253 - Parliament has this special legislative competence.

43 Match the Following:

Article 249 resolution Article 250 legislation Article 252 legislation Article 253 legislation

Continues beyond Emergency until six months after its cessation Can be amended or repealed by Parliament Not dependent upon State consent after treaty obligation arises Requires special majority in Rajya Sabha Requires approval of every State Legislature

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	D	A	B	C
(B)	A	D	C	B
(C)	D	C	A	B
(D)	B	A	D	C

Correct Answer: (A) D-A-B-C

1. Article 249 resolution - D - Requires special majority in Rajya Sabha - It requires a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
2. Article 250 legislation - A - Continues beyond Emergency until six months after its cessation - Such laws cease to have effect after the constitutional period following Emergency.
3. Article 252 legislation - B - Can be amended or repealed by Parliament - Parliament retains power to amend or repeal such legislation.
4. Article 253 legislation - C - Not dependent upon State consent after treaty obligation arises - Parliament can legislate for international obligations.

44 Match the Following:

Tax assigned to States Tax shared between Union and States Grant-in-aid Union property exemption

Article 285 Article 275 Article 270 Article 268 Article 289

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	D	C	B	A
(C)	D	B	C	A
(D)	A	C	D	B

Correct Answer: (B) D-C-B-A

1. Tax assigned to States - D - Article 268 - Article 268 deals with specified duties levied by Union and collected by States.
2. Tax shared between Union and States - C - Article 270 - Article 270 governs distribution of specified taxes.
3. Grant-in-aid - B - Article 275 - It provides statutory grants-in-aid to States.
4. Union property exemption - A - Article 285 - Union property is generally exempt from State taxation.

45 Match the Following:

Article 269A Article 270 Article 271 Article 275

Grants from Union to certain States Inter-State GST Surcharge for Union purposes Distribution of certain taxes State borrowing

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	B	D	C	A
(B)	D	B	A	C
(C)	B	C	D	A
(D)	A	D	C	B

Correct Answer: (A) B-D-C-A

1. Article 269A - B - Inter-State GST - It concerns levy and collection of GST on inter-State supplies.
2. Article 270 - D - Distribution of certain taxes - It provides for distribution between Union and States.
3. Article 271 - C - Surcharge for Union purposes - It authorizes specified surcharges for Union purposes.
4. Article 275 - A - Grants from Union to certain States - It provides statutory grants-in-aid.

46 Match the Following:

Article 282 Article 293 Article 286 Article 289

Restrictions on taxation of sale or purchase of goods State borrowing Exemption of State property and income from Union taxation Expenditure from revenues for public purposes Union borrowing

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	B	D	C
(B)	D	B	A	C
(C)	D	A	C	B
(D)	C	B	D	A

Correct Answer: (B) D-B-A-C

1. Article 282 - D - Expenditure from revenues for public purposes - It permits grants for public purposes.
2. Article 293 - B - State borrowing - It regulates borrowing by State Governments.
3. Article 286 - A - Restrictions on taxation of sale or purchase of goods - It limits State taxation in specified sales and purchases.
4. Article 289 - C - Exemption of State property and income from Union taxation - State property and income receive constitutional protection subject to exceptions.

47 Match the Following:

Article 355 Article 356 Article 365 Article 360

Financial Emergency Failure to comply with Union directions Duty of Union to protect States Failure of constitutional machinery in State National Emergency

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	D	B	A
(B)	D	C	A	B
(C)	C	A	D	B
(D)	B	D	C	A

Correct Answer: (A) C-D-B-A

1. Article 355 - C - Duty of Union to protect States - The Union has a constitutional duty to protect States.
2. Article 356 - D - Failure of constitutional machinery in State - It provides for President's Rule.
3. Article 365 - B - Failure to comply with Union directions - Such failure may be treated as a constitutional failure.
4. Article 360 - A - Financial Emergency - It provides for Financial Emergency.

48 Match the Following:

Finance Commission GST Council Inter-State Council Zonal Council

Article 279A Article 263 States Reorganisation Act, 1956 Article 280 Article 324

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	A	D	B	C
(B)	D	A	C	B
(C)	D	A	B	C
(D)	B	C	A	D

Correct Answer: (C) D-A-B-C

1. Finance Commission - D - Article 280 - Article 280 establishes the Finance Commission.
2. GST Council - A - Article 279A - Article 279A establishes the GST Council.
3. Inter-State Council - B - Article 263 - Article 263 provides for the Inter-State Council.
4. Zonal Council - C - States Reorganisation Act, 1956 - Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under the Act.

49 Match the Following:

Cooperative federalism Fiscal federalism Administrative federalism Legislative federalism

Distribution of legislative competence Financial distribution between Union and States Coordination in policy implementation Division and coordination of administrative functions Judicial review only

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	B	D	A
(B)	A	D	C	B
(C)	C	A	B	D
(D)	D	B	A	C

Correct Answer: (A) C-B-D-A

1. Cooperative federalism - C - Coordination in policy implementation - It emphasizes collaboration between different levels of government.
2. Fiscal federalism - B - Financial distribution between Union and States - It concerns revenue and expenditure relationships.
3. Administrative federalism - D - Division and coordination of administrative functions - Articles 256-263 regulate important administrative relations.
4. Legislative federalism - A - Distribution of legislative competence - The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative subjects.

50 Match the Following:

Legislative relations Administrative relations Financial relations Inter-State relations

Articles 256-263 Articles 268-293 Articles 245-255 Articles 301-307 Articles 352-360

Options	1	2	3	4
(A)	C	A	B	D
(B)	A	C	D	B
(C)	C	B	A	D
(D)	D	A	B	C

Correct Answer: (A) C-A-B-D

1. Legislative relations - C - Articles 245-255 - These provisions govern distribution and exercise of legislative powers.
2. Administrative relations - A - Articles 256-263 - These provisions regulate Union-State administrative relations.
3. Financial relations - B - Articles 268-293 - These provisions deal with Union-State financial relations.
4. Inter-State relations - D - Articles 301-307 - These provisions primarily concern freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse.